Dresden Posted June 18, 2009 Report Share Posted June 18, 2009 Since this forum is full of astute people, I thought I'd ask about taxing. I live in an incorporated village in Ohio, and was wondering where the Village got the authority to levy an income tax on it's residents. There may be a simple answer to this, however, the mayor refuses to respond to my questions. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
softwareNerd Posted June 18, 2009 Report Share Posted June 18, 2009 The Federal constitution allows the raising of taxes and does not disallow states and so on from levying such taxes, so I assume you'd have to look at the Ohio constitution to see what that says. "Below" that, I assume the city has a charter or some such document. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jrs Posted June 19, 2009 Report Share Posted June 19, 2009 If you are concerned that the mayor is scamming you or misapplying the tax law in your case, then I suggest that you consult a tax attorney licensed in Ohio. If you are wondering what the moral justification for the tax law is, then I ask you what makes you think that there is any moral justification for it? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheAllotrope Posted August 23, 2009 Report Share Posted August 23, 2009 I think also that the subject line is misleading - governments have the power to tax, not the right. They only have this power to the extent necessary to fulfill the political ends of their citizens. The principle of voluntary taxation helps ensure this limitation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted August 23, 2009 Report Share Posted August 23, 2009 (edited) ORC 718.01( C ): No municipal corporation shall levy a tax on income at a rate in excess of one per cent without having obtained the approval of the excess by a majority of the electors of the municipality voting on the question at a general, primary, or special election. The legislative authority of the municipal corporation shall file with the board of elections at least seventy-five days before the day of the election a copy of the ordinance together with a resolution specifying the date the election is to be held and directing the board of elections to conduct the election. Blah blah blah... You'd have to read the whole code to get all of the provisions. I would imagine that the mayor simply doesn't know the law and doesn't want to spend the money on what he considers to be a nuisance request. Edited August 23, 2009 by DavidOdden Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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