happiness Posted November 7, 2015 Report Share Posted November 7, 2015 Any discussion of abolishing the FDA prompts leftists to scream "Thalidomide!" as if just saying that word over and over again somehow proves the need for government protectionism. But pre-Nazi Germany where the Thalidomide thing happened could not possibly have had a free market heatlhcare industry. Is there an argument that turns the tables on the left by showing that Thalidomide happend as a result or in spite of government intervention in the healthcare industry? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dream_weaver Posted November 7, 2015 Report Share Posted November 7, 2015 Thalidomide appears to be a post-Nazi Germany phenomenon. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
happiness Posted November 16, 2015 Author Report Share Posted November 16, 2015 (edited) Thanks for the correction. I had it in my head that this happened in the 30s. I'm trying to figure out whether German regulatory authorities approved thalidomide and doctors acted on the government's bad advice, but it does not appear to be the case. So far the best argument I can see is simply to say that one example does not prove the rule. Edited November 16, 2015 by happiness Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dream_weaver Posted November 17, 2015 Report Share Posted November 17, 2015 (edited) Another way to consider it is that the FDA is being paid by tax dollars for its conclusions be they right or wrong, where if the FDA was not there, individual livelihoods would be tied to their deriving of the right conclusions. Edited November 17, 2015 by dream_weaver Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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