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happiness

Thalidomide!

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Any discussion of abolishing the FDA prompts leftists to scream "Thalidomide!" as if just saying that word over and over again somehow proves the need for government protectionism. But pre-Nazi Germany where the Thalidomide thing happened could not possibly have had a free market heatlhcare industry. Is there an argument that turns the tables on the left by showing that Thalidomide happend as a result or in spite of government intervention in the healthcare industry?

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Thanks for the correction. I had it in my head that this happened in the 30s. I'm trying to figure out whether German regulatory authorities approved thalidomide and doctors acted on the government's bad advice, but it does not appear to be the case. So far the best argument I can see is simply to say that one example does not prove the rule.

Edited by happiness

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Another way to consider it is that the FDA is being paid by tax dollars for its conclusions be they right or wrong, where if the FDA was not there, individual livelihoods would be tied to their deriving of the right conclusions.

Edited by dream_weaver

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