Dan9999999 Posted March 8, 2004 Report Share Posted March 8, 2004 Now if the basis of objective law is to only harm those who have done harm, then should things like perjury and impeding a police investigation be crimes as no direct harm is done? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trey Givens Posted March 10, 2004 Report Share Posted March 10, 2004 if the basis of objective law...It isn't. "The only proper purpose of a government is to protect man's rights." - Ayn Rand But should those things be crimes? Yes. Impeding justice in those ways is just that - impeding justice. You're actually assisting in the crime. So, if someone stole something and you know who did it and where they went and you told the police that you didn't know anything, you would be aiding the criminal. Generally speaking, of course. We dont want to forget the context. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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