The Real Francisco Posted February 25, 2006 Report Share Posted February 25, 2006 Once Rand explained precisely, what she meant by the use of the term "objective," apparently Mises agreed, that his use of the term "subjective," in the economic "subjective theory of value," would have been better named, as "objective." ie. "Objective Theory of Value." Does anyone know the precise source of the above information? It is somewhere, in the vast literature on objectivism........ but where? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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