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Perhaps everyone is ignoring this because it is so patently (sic) untrue. Property rights certainly do include the right to act, but it is a right to unspecific acts with regard to a very specific object. The word "property" refers to the object, not the acting, and the phrase "property rights" obviously refers to both actions and the specific objects which are acted upon. Property rights are very much a right to materials and objects. Divorcing the term 'property' from its traditional, objective definition is necessary to the upkeep of the IP argument.

No, that is not correct. It is not correct to say that because men are ends in themselves, no man may initiate the use of force against another.