I am having trouble figuring out the argument commonly
presented by conservatives that the top 1% of wage
earners pays 34% of the taxes (seems unfair).
I don't want to discuss the progressive tax as it
seems plain to me that charging someone a higher tax
because they make more money is unconstitutional (does
not apply the law equally) and immoral (punishing the
good for being good).
Rather, let us consider the actual collection of taxes
as compared to a flat tax.
I see a contradiction when saying the top 1% PAY 34%
of the taxes when considering that the top 1% EARN 45%
(I'm not sure of the actual percentage but I'm quite
sure it is higher than 34%).
IF the top 1% EARN 45% of the money, THEN, in a flat
tax situation, shouldn't they pay 45% of the
taxes?????????
I guess I'm really looking for a mathmatical answer
but would be glad to listen to a philosophical one as
well.
Thanks,
Marc K.
