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Mikee

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Posts posted by Mikee

  1. Does anything in this quote negate the concept of Tabula Rasa:

     

    "Before we became conscious, we operated on a previous mode of decision-making. Artifacts from this previous and long-superseded mode of decision-making are still with us, and explain many quirks and tendencies of humans. The yearning for authorization is a human quirk not found in any of the other animals. The universal appeal of the god-idea, our susceptibility to hypnosis and schizophrenia, the need for reminders of the admonishments of our elders in the form of gravestones, all hints of how our minds operated before the slate, before consciousness. The slate was not born like Venus. Tabula Rasa is an empty slate. What about as babies before we know any words to write on the slate? What about as earlier hominids before our minds had the capacity for a slate? There was then a mode of thinking & learning. This mode has left traces, artifacts, on our tendencies today.

     

    Yes, we are born without knowledge, defining "knowledge" as those verbal constructs able to be manipulated on the slate, with analogs to reality. But like all animals we are born with the mental ability to learn, communicate, think, form percepts & concepts, etc., all without the slate. Further, because introspective consciousness depends on the manipulation of of these verbal analogs on the slate, we are not born conscious. We must "learn" consciousness, after we are taught enough language to fill our mental slate. Only then can we invent an analog world based upon language, the heart of consciousness - spatialization, volition, verbal concepts, fantasies, morality."

  2. Your notion of inductivist is still vague to me then you keep making a new thread. Also I'm not sure why you keep posting it here to the degree that you say nothing at all to do with Objectivism, or talking about a particular stance of Objectivism (you said yourself induction is barely mentioned in ITOE and even OPAR), just a general "induction is wrong". And your critique to me is apparently based off the very thing you're speaking out against, which is using a set of data points to make a generalization. I sorta know what you mean by inductivist, but not really. All you did for me is write a list as though it were a DSM diagnosis. I propose not using the word induction, because this is not an argument of how to write a dictionary.

     

    If induction is only what you say it is here, fine, you're right. My preference is to not say "induction" and talk about formation of concepts objectively. I only use the word sometimes because it's better than the alternative words. I thought of a good response actually that is not dependent on data sets or probability in order to make a final stage for a true conclusion that's more like induction than not. I was going to write it in your other thread, then you posted this. And if my explanation ends up being what you call not induction at all, that's fine, but it will be about how to reach true generalizations of specific concretes (not approximations). If you just have a little patience, you'll get at least an alternative besides the arguments you have been asking for.

     

     

    Louie, could you post that explanantion?

  3. I think what Eioul is talking about is some sort of 'language organ' an idea which I believe has been criticised here: http://zompist.com/langorg.htm

     

    There is also Michael Tomasello’s paper on Chomsky’s Universal Grammar: 

     

    http://www.psych.yorku.ca/gigi/documents/Tomasello_2004.pdf

     

     

    This paragraph is especially worth quoting:

     

    “I think it is important that the oddness of the UG hypothesis about language acquisition be emphasized; it has basically no parallels in hypotheses about how children acquire competence in other cognitive domains. For example, such skills as music and mathematics are, like language, unique to humans and universal among human groups, with some variations. But no one has to date proposed anything like UniversalMusic or UniversalMathematics, and no one has as yet proposed any parameters of these abilities to explain cross-cultural diversity (e.g., +/- variables, which some cultures use, as in algebra, and some do not—or certain tonal patterns in music). It is not that psychologists think that these skills have no important biological bases—they assuredly do—it is just that proposing an innate UM does not seem to be a testable hypothesis, it has no interesting empirical consequences beyond those generated by positing biological bases in general, and so overall it does not help us in any way to get closer to the phylogenetic and ontogenetic origins of these interesting cognitive skills.”

     

     

    This is a very nice counter-statement to the Chomskyan claim that the uniqueness of language to humans among species but its universality among humans shows its special biologically innate status. 

     

    Michael Tomasello also has a book called Constructing a Language: http://www.amazon.com/Constructing-Language-Usage-Based-Theory-Acquisition/dp/0674017641/ref=wl_it_dp_o_pC_S_nC?ie=UTF8&colid=SU5HDKSQ7RHT&coliid=I164YROZMUQ8OE

  4. Morality, in the Aristotelian tradition is seen as the art of promoting, as well as the experience of, the health of the psyche. (And thus morality is fundamentally self-oriented.) Others, within different traditions define morality instead as the rules of social interaction and cooperation and will talk about evolved moral traditions. If morality is indeed a system of values, as opposed to rules (even though some moralities highlight rules at the expense of values.) what is the relationship between these two ideas? or in other worlds is morality multifaceted?
  5. I've had this claim about Rand's philosophy levelled at me in a discussion:

     

    "Rand's philosophy is specifically pre-Darwinian. The human perceptual wetware already constitutes an innate theory about the world. The human body itself can be seen as a conjecture about its environment. And this is all consistent with the observation that toddlers invariably exhibit an innate sense of fair play. They do this long before they could have had the sorts of perceptions and conceptions imagined by Randian Objectivists. Any adequate philosophy is going to have to explain this." 

    When I asked for evidence for his claim about toddlers he cited this study: http://healthland.time.com/2012/02/20/even-babies-can-recognize-whats-fair/

     

    Now it's my understanding that Rand's epistemology was a blank state one and that Chomsky has argued that there must be thousands of innate elements of meaning, thousands of categories that cannot be learned from the evidence of the senses and instead must be inborn. But this is because his theories are a response to the stripped-down epistemology of the British empiricists as handled by the Anglo-American analytic approaches of the 20th century, which on their own terms can be shown not to succeed at explaining human knowledge. 

     

    I think the charge of pre-Darwinism is explained with this paragraph:

     

    "First of all, Chomsky, Gardner, and others of similar ideologies believe that infants are born with a significant prewired knowledge of how languages work and how they do not work. Views within this group vary slightly, but they all hold to this basic tenet and cite ample evidence in defense of this view. These proponents of the innateness of linguistic ability also believe that the genetic basis for language came about as the result of Darwinian evolution and by an extension of the "survival of the fittest" argument. Again, individual views vary slightly, but all supporters of this school of thought see language as a product of Darwinian evolution."

     

     

    How would you respond to something like this claim?

     

     

     

     

  6. Just out of curiosity, would this comment be consistent with or fall under the theory-ladenness of perception that Kelley discusses in his book:

     

    "Knowledge can't begin with perception because observation requires knowledge to be effective. What do you observe and what not? You have to think first to answer that question before you make useful, selective observations.There are vast numbers of things to observe, patterns to find, perspectives to consider, and so on. How is one to choose? Whatever the answer, that we need to start there, not with perception."

  7. Some relevant quotes:

     

    "In other words, Kant saw with perfect clarity that the history of science had refuted the Baconian myth that we must begin with observations in order to derive our theories from them. And Kant also realized very clearly that behind this historical fact lay a logical fact; that there were logical reasons why this kind of thing did not occur in the history of science: that it was logically impossible to derive theories from observations" (Karl Popper, Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge, P. 256)

     

    "Kant also showed that what holds for Newtonian Theory must hold for everyday experience, though not, perhaps, quite to the same extent: that everyday experience, too goes far beyond all observation. Everyday experience too must interpret observation; for without theoretical interpretation, observation reminds blind-uninformative. Everyday experience constantly operates with abstract ideas, such as that of cause and effect, and so it cannot be derived from observations" (Karl Popper, Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge, P. 257)

     

    "And we can now see the whole riddle of experience- the paradox of the empirical sciences as discovered by Kant: Newton's dynamics goes essentially beyond all observations. It is universal, exact; it arose historically out of myths; and we can show by purely logical means that it is not derivable from observation-statements." (Karl Popper, Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge, P. 257)

     

    "My third point- the contention that it is logically impossible to derive Newton's theory from observations- follows immediately from Hume's critique of the validity of inductive inferences, as pointed out by Kant." (Karl Popper, Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge, P. 256)

     

     

     

  8. Correcting mistakes is the method of obtaining knowledge. Error correction creates knowledge.

     

    Human fallibility is and should be a main focus point. It's important and has to be dealt with. Mistakes are common, we have to deal with them all the time, we need systems for that, it's a crucial issue. That's my point. You're asserting to the contrary but not saying anything that would change my mind.

     

    Correcting a mistake.... known to you by what means?

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