I am a little confused by this blog that seems to disprove that a person's acts are driven from their rational self-interest driven nature. From Blackburn ...
Here it is, but I have copied/pasted the relevant section below:
To see this, imagine someone who truly desires their children to do well in life being presented with a couple of pairwise preference sets: (i) {children do well; you think children do badly} and (ii) {children do badly; you think children do well}. Now if the person really cares about their children, they will opt for (i), and this contradicts the claim that what they are after is their pleasure, for they will certainly not derive pleasure from thinking their children are doing badly. So the egoist conclusion does not follow from the trivial reflection that to desire something happen is to think it pleasant if it does. As Bob today suggested we end our Finals essays: Q. E. D.
Any thoughts on this please ... I am kind of confused now