MelvinPoh616
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Since this is such a huge topic I'll be as brief as possible; The early-Marxists claim that the State is really an oppressive/colored instrument in the sense through its extensions(such as laws;the police); it supposedly preserves/protects the interests of a powerful-ruling class and similarly at the same time its extensions is not universally beneficial/or neutral to all as one might be led to believe. For example; the existence of Private property; the existence of private property laws; and the existence of the judiciary and the police to enforce these laws is beneficial to us(the majority of people who own property) and definitely those who own alot of property but not to those who are homeless and dont own property. After all, telling one that rest assured their houses will be protected and recognised is not necessarily a good news or particular useful to one who sleeps under the bridge. Basically in summary the state is portrayed as being instrumentalist. How would an Objectivist reply agaisnt this?
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Yes indeed, it claims that law is in a way bad and not naturally good and we should be critical of it. Depending on different theorists, some may claim a total overthrow of current laws with more egalitarian laws, some claim anarchism as the solution. but i see so its ultimately a question of group rights v. individual rights.
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Hmmm I've been reading into Objectivism lately and I have to say I am fascinated by it all but just a quick question, How does objectivism justify the class division in society particularly the division that occurs in the workplace in society, where we have a majority of people working at the bottom, lets say in a factory, and we have a minority of people benefiting from thier work at the top. Objectivism claims that all should be entitled to the products of thier labor, how then does that reconcile with factory owners who take all the shoes made by the factory workers and sell them and pay them a bare minimal wage?