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Simple question. A person owes thousands of dollars in loans. They are paying back the loans monthly, on time. Is the money they earn at their job considered "theirs"? Or is it considered the money of the person that the loan is owed to? The answer does seem obvious upon second thought: it is their money, less the amount per month they are to be paying. Is this right? I just want to clear up my thinking on the subject.  Also, feel free to move this if it's in the wrong place--I didn't think it quite fit under political philosophy either...