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When do you believe the use of violence is justified?

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Arkanin

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This is a multi-parter.

A.) When do you believe the use of violence is justified?

B.) Is this clearly harmonious with your moral absolute of rational self-interest? (E.g., "Violence is justified when it is in accordance with my rational self-interest" is obviously harmonious with a principle of rational self-interest)

C.) If they aren't obviously harmonious -- what is the linchpin, the argument or idea, that reconciles the two?

Thanks!

Edited by Arkanin
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A.) When do you believe the use of violence is justified?

Theres nothing inherently wrong with violence so one answer could just be "whenever its fun" - in martial arts for example, where the use of physical force is consensual.

The problem isnt with violence per se, its when the rights of others are violated. To avoid violating rights, this generally rules out non-consensual violence in most cases other than self-defence (when someone either initiates force against you or threatens to do so), although I dont think you could really call it immoral if person X gave person Y a slap for being obnoxious/verbally abusive.

Edited by eriatarka
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Theres nothing inherently wrong with violence so one answer could just be "whenever its fun" - in martial arts for example, where the use of physical force is consensual.

The problem isnt with violence per se, its when the rights of others are violated. To avoid violating rights, this generally rules out non-consensual violence in most cases other than self-defence (when someone either initiates force against you or threatens to do so), although I dont think you could really call it immoral if person X gave person Y a slap for being obnoxious/verbally abusive.

So non-consensual, non-self-defense violence is wrong, and this emerges from a larger concept of personal rights. Would you say the concept of personal rights emerges a priori from the principle of self-interest, from the principle of self-interest combined with practical observations about the world, or that it is sort of a separate principle?

Edited by Arkanin
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In a sense, yes. In the sense that it comes from asking: what type of social system allows men to pursue their self-interest, in principle?

Could I phrase that as: what type of social system allows everyone to persue their self-interest in a way that is equally fair, in principle?

(Mind you, not that everyone *is* equal or will succeed equally, or even has the same resources)

Edited by Arkanin
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Could I phrase that as: what type of social system allows everyone to persue their self-interest in a way that is equally fair, in principle?

(Mind you, not that everyone *is* equal or will succeed equally, or even has the same resources)

Better just to avoid confusion and leave off "equally fair" because it does imply what you suggest. Also, to avoid any dichotomy in the answers to this question I might just leave off the "in principle", since you could just as easily say "in fact" (though I think softwareNerd was answering your specific question). So:

What social system allows each individual to pursue their rational self-interest? (Depending on the audience, you could leave off "rational" since it is redundant).

-------------------

P.S.

It appears you edited your post before last so that softwareNerd's quote of same does not match it anymore. Be careful because you have snuck in an illegitimate concept: a priori.

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