VECT Posted April 2, 2010 Report Share Posted April 2, 2010 How exactly is or should the word "moral" be defined? Nothing vague here, but things like these two quotes confuses me. "Moral cowardice is the necessary consequence of discarding morality as inconsequential" "the [uS] only moral country in the history of the world" Does the adjective moral just mean "pertaining to ethics" or does it mean "it's good/right"? Now you could say moral can mean both depends on the usage, but if so consider this: "Moral right" A right pertaining to ethics? If so, then how does one determine whether a right is a moral right as apart to say a legal right...etc.? A right that is good? Then can there be said to exist immoral rights? Would "the right to enslave" be considered an immoral right? I recently had a person arguing that the right to property is just a "legal right" not a "moral right". That's when this definition complication hit me. Curious on what do you guys think. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cmac19 Posted April 5, 2010 Report Share Posted April 5, 2010 The term "moral" can be used in either of those two definitions. It can be used to mean "that which pertains to ethics" ie by saying "he is facing a moral dilemma" or it can be used to mean "that which is good or right" ie by saying "he is a very moral person" it all depends on the context in which the term is being used. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
VECT Posted April 11, 2010 Author Report Share Posted April 11, 2010 So for the example of the term "moral right", which one would you say it is? The two definitions for "moral" can be obvious in many causes, but the case of "moral right" is not so obvious, for me at least. This might also divulge a bit into the definition of "right". So far I am hinging on the meaning "that which is good" for "moral" in the term "moral right". Since a right is a sanction of what you can or cannot do among other individuals, some sanctions are rational and therefore moral, other sanctions are irrational and immoral. The sanction to enslave other individuals would be irrational and immoral for a human begin. The sanction to create and own new technology would be rational and good. This line of thought also makes sense when saying a right is legally sanctioned but not morally sanctioned. This interruption works fine for me until I start coming across lines like these on Lexicon: "Any alleged “right” of one man, which necessitates the violation of the rights of another, is not and cannot be a right." "There can be no such thing as 'the right to enslave.'" There cannot be such right conceptually? Or does Rand mean a human begin cannot morally have such rights within a society of other human begins. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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