Mikee Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 If I take my hard earned money and give some away to a child in need, does that make me morally superior to another man who refuses to help that child even though we share the same wealth and lifestyles? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
JayR Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 It depends on your reason for giving the money, and the effect the lack of said money would have on your intrests. More context please. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dante Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 If I take my hard earned money and give some away to a child in need, does that make me morally superior to another man who refuses to help that child even though we share the same wealth and lifestyles? In general, no. Helping others is one possible component of an ethical egoist's life, but it is certainly not the foundation of morality. What is fundamentally important is fidelity to one's own rationally self-interested hierarchy of values. Morality is about pursuing a full, flourishing life of contentment and happiness, and helping other people is a secondary concern that fits in differently for different people. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RationalBiker Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 If I take my hard earned money and give some away to a child in need, does that make me morally superior to another man who refuses to help that child even though we share the same wealth and lifestyles? In addition to what has already been said, your morality isn't something you judge by comparison to another's morality. YOUR life is your standard, not the other guy's life. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ToyoHabu Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 so would it be possible that I can still be self-interested yet occasionally help others when either 1) I feel they deserve it or 2) they are completely helpless (orphans)? It would all depend on why you feel they deserve it, feelings not being a basis of knowledge. It is rarely true that anyone is completely helpless. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
OCSL Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 (edited) so would it be possible that I can still be self-interested yet occasionally help others when either 1) I feel they deserve it or 2) they are completely helpless (orphans)? Living with your own self-interest in mind does not mean that you live with an indifference to every other person. There are many rational reason a person could have to give to charity or help others. edit: Objectivist view on charity if your interested: http://www.ayn-rand.info/cth--1226-Charity.aspx Edited December 2, 2010 by OCSL Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
VcatoV Posted December 2, 2010 Report Share Posted December 2, 2010 Others have perfectly stated the realm of ethics and its origins. The purpose of this is to differentiate between virtues and benevolent actions. Though there is no moral reason to help that child, it is indeed a benevolent act to do so. This does not mean that benevolence is a virtue (unless your name is David Kelley), but rather is an extension of one's sense of life and eudaimonia. Consider this. A person is walking with both hands full of junk and you are right in front of them entering the same building. Morality has no say in whether to hold the door open or not, yet a benevolent person would want to extend his sense of life and goodwill towards others by holding the door open. This does not make you a more virtuous person, but it does help to project your sense of life out into the world. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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