Re #3, when you multiply a number by 1, you get the same number. When you multiply it by the opposite of 1, you should get the opposite of the number you started with.
What exactly is “the opposite of 1” anyhow? Opposite in what sense? In the sense that by “1” you mean “+1”, i.e., opposite as vectors? In which case you haven’t defined multiplication of vectors yet …
“multiplying vectors” there are two ways to do this of course, the cross product and the dot product.
The dot product results in a scalar, not a vector, so is not a proper group-theoretic multiplication operation.
The cross product is not commutative, so it doesn’t meet the requirements.
If you regard integers as vectors of order 1,
No, the naturals are vectors of order 1 in the sense you mean; to have a vector, you need an origin. And if the origin is the integer 0, then -1 and +1 lie on different rays from the origin, i.e., different vectors.
So dot-multiplying numbers of opposite signs under your system gives you a result of zero, without fail. This is a silly result, IMHO. But a dot product breaks down in another crazy fashion when you are mutiplying two negative numbers together. (0,2)dot(0.2) gives 4… but somehow, that’s really supposed to be (0,4) or -4 to us non-icosical math types.
Why are you surprised that my inner product works as intended? I have already made clear that I don’t grant the possibility of moving left by moving right – or, to put it more concretely, you can’t get to the moon by heading towards the center of the Earth. Left/right, in/out are orthogonal conceptually and existentially in the simplest sense: displacements in one direction cannot be added up to form displacements in the other.
Unless of course multiplying vectors isn’t done with a dot product in your system. (But if not, how is it done? Or are you claiming you cannot multiply vectors at all? If not, since all numbers are vectors according to you, how can you multiply them at all?)
I never claimed all numbers are vectors. I simply claimed that vectors are not numbers, and that integers are a form of vector by definition: magnitude and direction. I don’t know how to define multiplication on vectors in a group-theoretic sense …
Not sure why you can’t bring yourself to use +3 when you mean the integer, and 3 only when you mean the natural number. If you’d do that, you’d be representing the integers as the cross product of the naturals with the cyclic group of order two – which is also a vector form, albeit not symmetric in its coordinates (which is where I started, btw – but quickly realized the benefit of the symmetry in terms of simplicity and ease of use). In other words, instead of -3 and +3, you could write (-,3) and (+,3) – what’s the conceptual difference. Why do you insist on conflating the positive integers with the natural numbers? They are clearly different concepts, arrived at by distinct means, so why obfuscate their difference?
Its magnitude AND sign that are needed to specify an integer. Sign has two states, which is no coincidence because the integers encompass two rays in distinct directions. And a number line certainly IS two rays point oppositely from the origin, why do you want to ignore the fact that the origin is special. Ah, maybe that’s the problem – you want the luxury of moving your origin along the line without loss of generality. But the origin is just a point of perspective, and with respect to any such point, the line is seen as a ray when one looks left, and a ray when one looks right – two rays, yes.
Oh, and the rays need not be at 180 degrees for my math to work, in fact the math works (and you wouldn’t question it for any sequence of angles less than 180 … but if 180 is somehow special, then you are claiming that the process of widening an angle is not uniform, so that the limit of the process can have properties unpredictable from the properties at any given angle less than 180. Where do you draw the line, so to speak?
It takes two rays to define a plane, but three to span it, which is what I said. If I used “define” where I meant “span”, mea culpa.
Finally, Steve, regarding your repeated swerves towards dubbing my assertions “insane” without understanding my analysis in full, how about a little Shakespeare?: “m’lady doth protest too much, methinks.”
The conventional system uses one number plus one sign to specify an integer.
This is one of my issues: when you conflate 1(natural) with +1(integer), and refer to them with the symbol “1”, and when the magnitude of +1 is equal to 1, its too easy to lose sight of what is really going on.
And, Steve, you have lost sight of it. Check your premises, and please refrain from attacking my character obliquely in the future. I don’t appreciate it, nor do I consider it harmless. I have been respectful to you, but am beginning to accumulate evidence to support a suspicion that you consider my challenge of your premises to be a form of disrespect. If that is the case, let me know and I’ll stop dealing with you altogether.
Cheers.