How is this statement true? "A consciousness conscious of nothing but itself is a contradiction in terms: before it could identify itself as consciousness, it had to be conscious of something."

Metaphysics and Epistemology
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On 12/24/2022 at 5:28 PM, KyaryPamyu said:

Simple, I just need to rehash the standard O’ist argument:

Q: Why can’t the mind be aware only of itself?
A: Well, refer to the axioms, which boil down to: ‘there is something of which I’m aware’.

Q: Can the something of which I’m aware be produced by my mind?
A: No, you must first go through many experiences before you can have an inner world.

Q: But why aren’t those formative experiences self-produced?
A: Because I don’t feel that I produce them.

Q: What if you do it unconsciously?
A: Hm? How could that happen?

Q: [Describe Hegel’s position, or similar]
A: So, who are you guys voting for in the next election?

(Here’s my attempt to disprove idealism on O’ist grounds, although I don’t personaly subscribe to either realism or idealism).

I see. If we assume tabula rasa, then the very idea of subjective idealism is impossible, because the mind cannot function without content. I’ll be reading your refutation soon. Thanks.