8 minutes ago, StrictlyLogical said:
Suppose a caveman heard you talk about borrowing and how it deprives the sleeping man of something and he responds:
I have not deprived sleeping man of anything. He was there the pole was here. He did not have the pole. I did not touch him. He was not using the pole. I did not force and take it from him. The moment I picked up the pole I had the pole. He lost the pole because by forgetting it, he let me have it. I could pick it up, and I did, and once I pick up the pole it is mine. I can wear and tear it now that pole is mine. If pole was his he would have it. He says he intended to use it again, but he did not. I got it first. He can only wish he did what he intended, I have pole now.
I don’t know what you’re looking for, or asking, or if there is any argument you’re making. You’re saying: “what if a caveman disagreed with my argument for property rights and insisted that ‘might makes right’ or that ‘possession equals property right’ or that ‘there is no such thing as property’” or something? Well then, he disagrees, but my argument remains the same.
He says he has not deprived the sleeping caveman of anything, but I say that he has, and my discussion of not being able to use the fishing pole, wear and tear, etc., is meant to demonstrate the nature of that deprivation. That it is an assault on the caveman’s life follows, as my argument was again meant to demonstrate.
If the caveman is unable to follow my argument, I can’t say that I’m surprised… but I am somewhat heartened that he knows the word “deprivation.”
Please consider that my stance on property rights is identical to the stance that an Objectivist, orthodox with respect to IP, has after whatever term of patent has expired, so far as I am aware. If we set a patent at twenty years (for whatever reasons), then both you and I would regard it as kosher, I presume, for one caveman to “copy” the (innovated) fishing pole of another following that twenty year term. But our treatment of the fishing pole itself would be the very same; no one could yet “borrow” it when the caveman is sleeping, whether in year one or year one-hundred. With patent (or trademark, or copyright, or however you believe IP best expressed) expired, I don’t see that we would have any point of difference in how this fishing pole is to be treated, or how it relates to our cavemen, qua “property” or “rights.”
Therefore, I do not believe that IP somehow hides in this discussion of “borrowing” actual property, as – so far as I know – we treat that case in the exact same manner and for the very same reasons. But if you have a case to make that it does, please don’t wait on me to guess what you want me to say, but go ahead and make it.