Why Philosophical Statements About the Vacuum are Invalid

The “category” existent is for making the secondary derivative status explicit. All secondary existents, categories like attributes, actions and relationships are secondary to _ entity _. They are epistemically secondary because the isolation is mind dependent. They are causally dependent as well… Legs come before walking etc. That doesn’t mean legs “exist more or less” than walking.

 

ITOE said:

 

 

 

The confusion here is created because many don’t realize the metaphysical basis for epistemic hierarchy. There is a causal primacy that is not mind dependent.

 

Is the Axiomatic concept entity merely logical or is its status as a metaphysical primary factual? 

 

When Ms. Rand says “abstractions as such do not exist” She is depending on the hearer to understand what a metaphysical primary is. That’s why she relates the “mental entity” discussion to Aristotle and primary substance. Abstraction, like consciousness is something substantial entities do, not a substance itself. That being said, I think she could have been more clear on this.

 

So relational existents are not causes as such. Its the entities that are relating that are the causes. They are basic.

 

SL reread our statements in this thread with this in mind:

 

http://forum.objectivismonline.com/index.php?showtopic=22062&hl=emergence

 

Relations are not “super entities”. Space is not a “super entity”. Do you agree?

 

I agree.  Space is not an entity.  It exists as a relationship between entities.

Plasmatic said:

 

Don said:

Quote

That A = A does not give us any information whatever as to a given A’s identity or nature, apart from that “whatever it is, it is.” Everything else must be discovered.

 

 

 

Except that nowhere does Ms. Rand say that all discoveries are of the special science nature. In fact the conceptual discovery of “entity” is explicitly philosophical. ( as is every single self evident fact, including the axioms!) The very issue here is wether “there can be no nothing” is a philosophical principle that can rule out statements about a complete vacuum. That is, does the notion that a complete vacuum exists get a philosophical veto because that statement is encroaching on philosophic grounds?

 

Philosophy tells us that entities (plural) exist and have identity, they are metaphysical primaries. What kinds of entities there are is for the special sciences to answer.

 

Good point and you may be hitting the nail on the head when you state “encroaching on philosophic” grounds.  I think this, the assumption that a vacuum WOULD be encroaching on philosophic grounds, is the error I am trying to identify and here is why:

 

One must distinguish between:

  1. the claiming that “nothing” is a something or like a something which can have an attribute such as position and volume; and
  2. claiming the non-existence of a particular relationship (not an entity) between or among entities

 

 

IF one only asserts 2) it is perfectly valid BECAUSE space is ONLY a relationship.  It is NOT a container that exists and contains “a nothing” where there are no entities or portions thereof, it is literally an unoccupied relationship.

 

There was a speck “directly in-between” those two spheres, there are no specks “directly in-between” those spheres, and more over there are no entities nor any portions thereof “directly in-between” those two spheres.  By definition “directly in-between” those two spheres is empty.

(I could say the position does not “exist” now because nothing is there NOW, but conceiving of space as having “theres” that are and are not as things occupy them and then do not, would be a more complicated conception which attempts a half-reification and half-relational description.  It is simpler to avoid all reification of space, remember that “there” only ever is relational, determine if the relation is occupied or not and be done with it)

 

I submit no one can prove Leonard Peikoff’s pocket cannot empty… except with special sciences.

Here’s a discussion Ayn Rand had about the ultimate constituents of entities. It’s from Appendix - Philosophy of Science, Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, Expanded 2nd Edition:

– Discussion begins here –
Properties of the Ultimate Constituents

Prof. E: Could you argue, on metaphysical grounds, that all observed properties of an entity are ultimately explicable in terms of, or reducible back to, properties of their primary constituents?

Ayn Rand: We’d have to be omniscient to know. The question in my mind would be: how can we [as philosophers] make conclusions about the ultimate constituents of the universe? For instance, we couldn’t say: everything is material, if by “material” we mean that of which the physical objects on the perceptual level are made - “material” in the normal, perceptual meaning of the word. If this is what we mean by “material,” then we do not have the knowledge to say that ultimately everything is sub-subatomic particles which in certain aggregates are matter. Because suppose scientists discovered that there are two different kinds of primary ingredients - or three, or more? We would be in the same position as the pre-Socratics who were trying to claim that everything was air, water, earth, and fire because that’s all they knew.

Prof. E: You see the question is whether the concept of “potentiality” might not be irreducible. That is, whether the ultimate constituents of the universe, if and when we ever reach them, would have to be definable solely in terms of their mode of action.

Ayn Rand: No, in fact the opposite will be true. The only thing of which we can be sure, philosophically, is that the ultimate stuff, if it’s ever found - one element or ten of them - will have identity. It will be what it is. You could not say that it is pure action: the concept wouldn’t apply. If you come down to the ultimate particles of the universe and say they are pure action, they don’t have any identity, they don’t have anything except the capacity for action - the term “action” would not apply. By “action” we mean the action of an entity.

Prof. E: But suppose one were to raise the question epistemologically, rather than metaphysically. Granted that the ultimate constituents are something, are entities and have an identity, still is it possible for us in theory ever to know any more about them than the kind of action they take?

Prof. B: They’d have to have size, for one thing, and shape.

Ayn Rand: If they are particles. What if they are solid flows of energy, but each is indivisible, and it moves, but it’s one entity, moving from left to right and vice versa?

Prof. B: That depends on what “energy” means, because whatever the nature of energy is, that’s the nature it would have.

Ayn Rand: Exactly.

Prof. E: No, I was switching this to epistemology.

Ayn Rand: But the confusion there would arise in applying concepts based on the macroscopic level of observation to the submicroscopic, subatomic level. If you use macroscopic terms which do not apply on that level, the misapplication will destroy all your perceptual level and your whole conceptual structure.

Prof. B: So you are saying that the ultimate constituents need not be particles, like solid balls, but whatever they are, one is not to refer to them as being actions without entities.

Ayn Rand: Exactly. And I was also objecting to your saying they will have to have extension, for instance, or shape. We can’t claim that.

Prof. F: But suppose we agree that whatever they are, they will have identity - they will be what they are and so on. But mustn’t we also say something else: that we cannot define this identity solely in terms of their relationship to other objects?

For instance, suppose that one of the ultimate properties of an entity is charge. Suppose you couldn’t find any way of defining “charge” except in relationship to other entities. Now wouldn’t that be grounds, metaphysically, for saying therefore charge is not an ultimate property of matter?

Ayn Rand: I am not sure I even understand the logic. Why?

Prof. E: Presumably he would argue that a property which is defined in terms of a relationship between two entities presupposes and is a consequence of the attributes of that entity which give rise to that relationship. And therefore, if charge is definable only in terms of an entity’s relation to others - its effects on them - then charge couldn’t be a primary, it would have to be a derivative from something else in the entity that gives rise to that kind of effect.

Prof. F: Thank you. That’s exactly what I meant.

Prof. E: But then we are in bad shape here, because to grasp what the ultimate entities are, you have to strip off their actions, their potentialities for action, and their relations to other entities - then by what means would you ever get to know what they are?

Ayn Rand: Not only that, you are obviously making advance conditions for what that primary has to be. You are being Hegelian or Rationalistic in that sense. You cannot say philosophically what conditions you will ascribe to that which is not known. We cannot know by what means we will grasp something not known today. A hundred years ago you couldn’t have conceived of the cloud chamber, the first instrument by which scientists could observe atoms simply by observing their effects on something. You couldn’t have made the rule that unless you can touch, see, smell, and measure a given entity with a ruler, it cannot exist. That would have been crude materialism of some kind. You couldn’t, a hundred years ago, have prescribed the means by which you would discover twentieth-century knowledge. And yet in making any kind of conclusions about the ultimate stuff of the universe, you are necessarily committing that error. You are prescribing conditions of what something not known to you now has to be.

The important thing here is this. You cannot say that you would define an atom by means of its charge, or that you would look further, or what you would do, because you have no way of knowing in what form you will become aware of that primary stuff. It might be through ten different instruments, and the interaction of one upon another, which would only tell you how you became aware of it. You wouldn’t yet have defined it, metaphysically. All you could say is, “It is a something, which I discovered by the following method.”

The only thing that concerns philosophy is that we can say: whatever it is, it will have to be what it is, and no contradictions claimed about it will be valid - as for instance, the current theories about a particle that goes from one place to another without crossing the places in between. Now you see that is metaphysically impossible, and you don’t have to be a scientist to know that. A philosopher can tell you without ever entering a laboratory that that is not possible. But for a philosopher to attempt to define what kind of particle it has to be, or how we will determine its properties, that is unwarranted and Rationalistic. That is the province of science, not philosophy.

You see it isn’t the job of philosophy to tell us what exists, it’s only to tell us what has to be true of everything that exists [identity] and what are the rules by which you can claim knowledge. And in regard to the constituent elements of the universe, all we can say is that they would have to have identity. That we can prove. Any other conclusions we cannot draw philosophically.
– Discussion ends here –

In the above, Miss Rand states that:

  1. The ultimate constituents may not be particles with size & shape just like entities in the macroscopic level. They could be solid moving flows of energy.
  2. At the subatomic level, a particle cannot go from one place to another without crossing the places in between. That is metaphysically impossible.

So if 2 instances of the ultimate constituents are moving towards each other in submicroscopic space, then at some point in time, they will be so close to each other that the space between them would be too small for anything to occupy it. Neither another instance of the ultimate constituent nor anything smaller than an ultimate constituent, since there could be nothing smaller.

In that case, wouldn’t the (relational) space between the 2 moving instances of the ultimate constituent, at that point in time, contain literally nothing? Or would it be no different from having nothing in a pocket at the macroscopic level?

Ramesh said:

 

In the above, Miss Rand states that:

  1. The ultimate constituents may not be particles with size & shape just like entities in the macroscopic level. They could be solid moving flows of energy.

 

 

You are forgetting that she said this without knowing what is meant by “energy”. She was making a hypothetical in the same way Dr Peikoff did In another place.  In Ms. Rand’s presence Dr. Peikoff explained in the 1976 lectures that in his experience “energy” has never yet been defined by a physicist in philosophically meaningful terms. As defined, “the ability to do work” is not a substance and cannot meaningfully be called and entity without doing exactly what Ms Rand said cannot ever be done in regards to “pure action”. When he spoke of “puffs of meta energy” he specifically used that hypothetical because it was “deliberately undefined, without knowing what it means”.

 

What one must ask themselves is how to apply the Oist view of concepts and meaning in such a way that one could even form a concept of an entity thats not extended, shapeless, or “non-material”, without dropping context and without being subject to the same objections she made about “pure action”. (enter the philosophy of science debate on theoretical objects)

 

On a special science note, the substantival interpretation of energy is exactly what I was talking about earlier in regards to the energeticist movement. The generative context for the concept energy was purely material-kinetic. The energeticist came and divorced the concept from its origins. The result is you have non-physicist and phycisit ignorant of history trying to honor a floating abstraction based on ignorance of this context. 

 

Edit:

 

Considering the proviso stated by Dr. Peikoff before the appendix to ITOE I often wonder how heavily edited this topic would have been if Ms. Rand had been writing for publishing…

Here’s a discussion Ayn Rand had about the ultimate constituents of entities. It’s from Appendix - Philosophy of Science, Introduction to Objectivist Epistemology, Expanded 2nd Edition:

– Discussion begins here –

Properties of the Ultimate Constituents

Prof. E: Could you argue, on metaphysical grounds, that all observed properties of an entity are ultimately explicable in terms of, or reducible back to, properties of their primary constituents?

Ayn Rand: We’d have to be omniscient to know. The question in my mind would be: how can we [as philosophers] make conclusions about the ultimate constituents of the universe? For instance, we couldn’t say: everything is material, if by “material” we mean that of which the physical objects on the perceptual level are made - “material” in the normal, perceptual meaning of the word. If this is what we mean by “material,” then we do not have the knowledge to say that ultimately everything is sub-subatomic particles which in certain aggregates are matter. Because suppose scientists discovered that there are two different kinds of primary ingredients - or three, or more? We would be in the same position as the pre-Socratics who were trying to claim that everything was air, water, earth, and fire because that’s all they knew.

Prof. E: You see the question is whether the concept of “potentiality” might not be irreducible. That is, whether the ultimate constituents of the universe, if and when we ever reach them, would have to be definable solely in terms of their mode of action.

Ayn Rand: No, in fact the opposite will be true. The only thing of which we can be sure, philosophically, is that the ultimate stuff, if it’s ever found - one element or ten of them - will have identity. It will be what it is. You could not say that it is pure action: the concept wouldn’t apply. If you come down to the ultimate particles of the universe and say they are pure action, they don’t have any identity, they don’t have anything except the capacity for action - the term “action” would not apply. By “action” we mean the action of an entity.

Prof. E: But suppose one were to raise the question epistemologically, rather than metaphysically. Granted that the ultimate constituents are something, are entities and have an identity, still is it possible for us in theory ever to know any more about them than the kind of action they take?

Prof. B: They’d have to have size, for one thing, and shape.

Ayn Rand: If they are particles. What if they are solid flows of energy, but each is indivisible, and it moves, but it’s one entity, moving from left to right and vice versa?

Prof. B: That depends on what “energy” means, because whatever the nature of energy is, that’s the nature it would have.

Ayn Rand: Exactly.

Prof. E: No, I was switching this to epistemology.

Ayn Rand: But the confusion there would arise in applying concepts based on the macroscopic level of observation to the submicroscopic, subatomic level. If you use macroscopic terms which do not apply on that level, the misapplication will destroy all your perceptual level and your whole conceptual structure.

Prof. B: So you are saying that the ultimate constituents need not be particles, like solid balls, but whatever they are, one is not to refer to them as being actions without entities.

Ayn Rand: Exactly. And I was also objecting to your saying they will have to have extension, for instance, or shape. We can’t claim that.

Prof. F: But suppose we agree that whatever they are, they will have identity - they will be what they are and so on. But mustn’t we also say something else: that we cannot define this identity solely in terms of their relationship to other objects?

For instance, suppose that one of the ultimate properties of an entity is charge. Suppose you couldn’t find any way of defining “charge” except in relationship to other entities. Now wouldn’t that be grounds, metaphysically, for saying therefore charge is not an ultimate property of matter?

Ayn Rand: I am not sure I even understand the logic. Why?

Prof. E: Presumably he would argue that a property which is defined in terms of a relationship between two entities presupposes and is a consequence of the attributes of that entity which give rise to that relationship. And therefore, if charge is definable only in terms of an entity’s relation to others - its effects on them - then charge couldn’t be a primary, it would have to be a derivative from something else in the entity that gives rise to that kind of effect.

Prof. F: Thank you. That’s exactly what I meant.

Prof. E: But then we are in bad shape here, because to grasp what the ultimate entities are, you have to strip off their actions, their potentialities for action, and their relations to other entities - then by what means would you ever get to know what they are?

Ayn Rand: Not only that, you are obviously making advance conditions for what that primary has to be. You are being Hegelian or Rationalistic in that sense. You cannot say philosophically what conditions you will ascribe to that which is not known. We cannot know by what means we will grasp something not known today. A hundred years ago you couldn’t have conceived of the cloud chamber, the first instrument by which scientists could observe atoms simply by observing their effects on something. You couldn’t have made the rule that unless you can touch, see, smell, and measure a given entity with a ruler, it cannot exist. That would have been crude materialism of some kind. You couldn’t, a hundred years ago, have prescribed the means by which you would discover twentieth-century knowledge. And yet in making any kind of conclusions about the ultimate stuff of the universe, you are necessarily committing that error. You are prescribing conditions of what something not known to you now has to be.

The important thing here is this. You cannot say that you would define an atom by means of its charge, or that you would look further, or what you would do, because you have no way of knowing in what form you will become aware of that primary stuff. It might be through ten different instruments, and the interaction of one upon another, which would only tell you how you became aware of it. You wouldn’t yet have defined it, metaphysically. All you could say is, “It is a something, which I discovered by the following method.”

The only thing that concerns philosophy is that we can say: whatever it is, it will have to be what it is, and no contradictions claimed about it will be valid - as for instance, the current theories about a particle that goes from one place to another without crossing the places in between. Now you see that is metaphysically impossible, and you don’t have to be a scientist to know that. A philosopher can tell you without ever entering a laboratory that that is not possible. But for a philosopher to attempt to define what kind of particle it has to be, or how we will determine its properties, that is unwarranted and Rationalistic. That is the province of science, not philosophy.

You see it isn’t the job of philosophy to tell us what exists, it’s only to tell us what has to be true of everything that exists [identity] and what are the rules by which you can claim knowledge. And in regard to the constituent elements of the universe, all we can say is that they would have to have identity. That we can prove. Any other conclusions we cannot draw philosophically.

– Discussion ends here –

In the above, Miss Rand states that:

  1. The ultimate constituents may not be particles with size & shape just like entities in the macroscopic level. They could be solid moving flows of energy.

  2. At the subatomic level, a particle cannot go from one place to another without crossing the places in between. That is metaphysically impossible.

So if 2 instances of the ultimate constituents are moving towards each other in submicroscopic space, then at some point in time, they will be so close to each other that the space between them would be too small for anything to occupy it. Neither another instance of the ultimate constituent nor anything smaller than an ultimate constituent, since there could be nothing smaller.

In that case, wouldn’t the (relational) space between the 2 moving instances of the ultimate constituent, at that point in time, contain literally nothing? Or would it be no different from having nothing in a pocket at the macroscopic level?

 

In the last two paragraphs it is hard to tell if you propose

 

  1. that space as a relationship has a minimum distance or

  2. if you are stating that the 2 instances of the ultimate constituents approaching each other eventually touch at a same position in space.

 

In either case, i.e. by either of your definitions of space, there is no space between them, either they are:

  1. at the minimum relational distance and there is no relational space defined (no unit smaller) between them; or

2. touching at a same position and hence there is no relational space between them

 

so asking “wouldn’t the (relational) space between” them literally contain nothing?, is nonsensical.  You have presupposed there IS NO (relational) space between them to begin with, hence talking about what that contains is meaningless.

In my post, I had said 2 instances of the ultimate constituents were moving towards each other in submicroscopic space. This means eventually, at some point in time, say t2, the distance between them would become zero. Not before.

 

But since their motion towards each other reduces the distance between them, then at some point in time, say t1 (before that distance reduces to zero at t2 point in time), the distance would have become so small that nothing could occupy it.

 

Hence my question was: couldn’t one say that at the t1 point in time when the distance became so small that nothing could occupy it, the space between them at that point in time, namely t1, contains literally nothing?

 

The above is not the same as 2 billiard balls moving towards each other in macroscopic space. In such a context, there would be air between the balls before they hit each other. And even if it was possible to have 2 billiard balls hit each other in a room with no air at all, there could be other things that exist in the room between the billiard balls, e.g. weakly interacting particles.

 

Whereas, in the case of the 2 instances of the ultimate constituents, there’s nothing smaller than it which can occupy the space between them at the t1 point in time.

In my post, I had said 2 instances of the ultimate constituents were moving towards each other in submicroscopic space. This means eventually, at some point in time, say t2, the distance between them would become zero. Not before.

 

But since their motion towards each other reduces the distance between them, then at some point in time, say t1 (before that distance reduces to zero at t2 point in time), the distance would have become so small that nothing could occupy it.

 

Hence my question was: couldn’t one say that at the t1 point in time when the distance became so small that nothing could occupy it, the space between them at that point in time, namely t1, contains literally nothing?

 

The above is not the same as 2 billiard balls moving towards each other in macroscopic space. In such a context, there would be air between the balls before they hit each other. And even if it was possible to have 2 billiard balls hit each other in a room with no air at all, there could be other things that exist in the room between the billiard balls, e.g. weakly interacting particles.

 

Whereas, in the case of the 2 instances of the ultimate constituents, there’s nothing smaller than it which can occupy the space between them at the t1 point in time.

 

What you presuppose is that there exist “distances” small enough such that no thing could occupy it, which essentially presupposes entities possess a minimum extension in space.

 

Currently all fundamental particles (neutrinos, electrons, quarks) have been found to be point-like particles.  That is they can get arbitrarily close to each other, and any “occupation” by collections of fundamental particles is a result of the forces and interactions between them.  So although there may be a smallest atomic size, there is no smallest size associated with an electron.

 

Now ignoring the above, I would say it does not matter if the distance is such that no thing could fit between them.  The real fact is that no thing (and no portion thereof) IS between them, whether or not no thing COULD fit between them.  The relationship “between them” is unoccupied.  That relationship is valid to consider conceptually because it can vary, WHEN they are far apart and at a different point in time a thing might actually be “between them”.  It happens that now, at T1, given their distance, “between them” is not occupied.

I’ve studied special relativity and general relativity, I do not recall ever coming across a passage saying that space itself “moved”.  I think you are mistaken about this one HD.

Maybe. I got my information from an analogy involving the Simpsons’ Barney, in a Brian Greene book I read several years ago. The gist of it was that the pressure of the ground under our feet (the very pressure we use to measure our own weight) is caused by accelerated motion and that an observer in free fall is at rest.

I think the movement of space itself was my own attempt to make sense of that.

I do not know whether I should take silence as a compliment…or an insult…

https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Warnock’s_dilemma