Define recreational drug use. What about smokers or social drinkers? Caffeine is a drug that alters someone’s perception as well (albeit providing them with more focus). Plenty of the main characters in Rand’s novels enjoyed these 3 things. I suppose at the time Rand was writing the ill effects of smoking on someone’s health weren’t as documented as they are today, however, we’re not talking about health effects. We’re talking about an altered sensory perception due to recreational drugs.
I’m just curious where you’re drawing the line between substances, or their usage. A drug is a drug. Please let me know what the difference is between having a buzz at a social gathering via alcohol and having one via marijuana.
The line I’m drawing is one of intent:
Smoking is a contextual act. As a former smoker I can speak to that. There are other factors that enter in where the pharmocological aspect is not a factor. One enjoys the act of smoking and it occurs in certain circumstances. I used to smoke half a pack a day. If I was in a place where we were doing music, such as one of thse great basement jam sessions or the like, or in some other situation where I was deeply engaged. I would often smoke half of that in the course of an afternoon. In c1984 there was released the findings of a study that said there are 3 reasons why persons smoked 1) Positive affect: they liked it 2) Negative affect; it was something to do to counter nervousness 3) Addiction. Now 1984 was far from the Dark Ages. The comes from a report that I heard on WEAN 790 A.M. Providence RI when it was an all-news station.
Social drinking is contextual, Even in Atlas Shrugged, there is a scene of two of the major characters drinking wine. in 1975 at the Psychology Club picnic at Providence College, I consumed 19 cans of beer and several cans of Coke. However, I was stuffing my face and running around actively all day and well into the night so it did not affect me. It was either soaked up by the food or sweat out of me before it kicked in. And yes, I’ve been plastered so I know when it’s kicking in. I read in an issue of Popular Mechanics or Popular Science in 1964, in connection with drunk driving, that it takes the equivalent of 4 drinks for impairment to set in.
Caffeine is really only a stimulant, not a psychedelic. I suspect that if we arranged our lives according th the natural circadian rhythm cycles that this would not be an issue. Circadian rhythms have a high point 4"00 pm and a Low point 4:00 am (statistically) which means we should be going to bed at midnight and rising at 8:00 am. This last is from my Physiological Psych class in 1973
I draw the line at the intent. Is the intent to specifically alter the mind or mood in a non-medical context. i.e. to “get hight”, get “stoned” or the like?
The concept of “addiction” has been rendered meaningless over the last few years. Marijuana, Cocaine and Nicotine were listed as non-addictive drugs like asperin 50 years ago. Beyond that. the term has been recently revised (SCAM ALERT!) so that it includes gambling and other things. Now at it inception “Addiction” was defined by a strong, compelling raction to a chemical agent. Now it has been expanted to include non-chemical things like behaviors that are repeated habitually. What’s next? This points to a personality characteristic rather than a pharmacological one being the cheif operational factor. However it was the “addictive” nature of drugs that was the stated impetus of the second, and equally destructive as the first, Prohibition. In fact when I studied the matter in US history as a Junior in high school in early 1962, I thought to myself “The ink wasn’t even dry on the repeal of Prohibition and they started it again. What kind of dumb are they?” . why do a second time what you know failed in principle the first? And how did they expect it not to help organized crime? I mean; really?