Emerging States?

AlexL,

“Again: the sovereignty of a government over a territory has nothing to do with who owns the various parcels of the land.”

What does it have to do with?

I don’t think there is anything wrong with referring to a community. A group of individuals who identify as sharing a particular way of life can self identify as belonging to the same community. So for example, we are part of a community that is interested in Objectivism. I agree with you that a community doesn’t have rights, only individuals do. Which takes me back to the question, what gives a state jurisdiction?

You suggest that a state has jurisdiction by virtue of the fact it respects and protects the rights of individuals living in the area. However this begs the question of why people living in a particular area fall under the jurisdiction of one particular state or authority rather than another. Spain and the UK to varying degrees respects and protects the rights of their citizens, so why ought Spain have jurisdiction when it comes to property that is owned by a UK citizen? Why can’t the UK claim jurisdiction over it?

The Spanish state operates through individuals of course. Let me put it a different way. Why do the individuals who are operating the Spanish state have jurisdiction over matters concerning UK citizens?

Also under your idea, if say a large group of Americans decided to live in a foreign country where the state fails to respect and protect the rights of individuals, would you agree than an implication would be they could claim that the state there has no jurisdiction, giving them the right to put in place a new state covering the territory in which they live. I don’t necessarily disagree with this thinking - I want to explore it further if you would oblige me.

 

 

On 12/13/2015, 3:25:24, AlexL said:

No, defining a national territory through property rights calls for enormous difficulties and nobody does it.

A nation’s territory is defined as the territory over which that government has sovereignty

Finally, in this view, national territory is defined simply through the fact that it is the sum of all the territories on which a certain jurisdiction applies.

The sum of all territories is the sum of all individual claims to property, which in turn establishes the jurisdiction of those property owners; and the sovereignty is their sovereignty.  A government is property owned by the individuals who create and maintain it.  Their jurisdiction defines the property lines, which are more a reflection of ambition than geography; consider events in the Ukraine and South China Sea for recent examples of ambition pushing the envelope of jurisdiction.

The only difficulty is getting individual property owners to contract together for the benefit of mutual security, without claiming rights they don’t have to the contents of each others’ backyards.

 

On 12/14/2015, 6:05:33, Jon Southall said:

Why ought an individual recognize a community claim to jurisdiction? What is the basis of the claim to it when it is not private property? Is it just force-based?

The individual ought to recognize a community (of individuals) jurisdictional claim in order to have his own claim of jurisdiction recognized.

terra incognita.

The security of all private property is force based, but ideally only as a credible threat of retaliation.

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DonAthos: Anything a “government” (which is still a collection of individuals) has the right to do may only come from individual rights.

I am not sure what you mean. If you mean that anything a government has the right to do comes from the individual rights _ of its officials or representatives _, then I disagree. Persons who are also government officials exercise their function not because of their individual rights , but as their specific duties. Remember, we all have the exactly same individual rights, but most of us are not authorized, for example, to question a suspect, as a police officer is. 

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DonAthos: But suppose that you have two groups (roughly equal in terms of “respecting and protecting individual rights,” or poised to be) which each claim jurisdiction over some territory […] How do you know which has the legitimate authority?

In this case the legitimate claim to authority has the one which was the first to establish on that territory a rights-respecting régime.

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DonAthos: suppose another case where the two governments are unequal with respect to individual rights… suppose that we’re talking about Fascist Spain with the same British citizen. Does that change anything?

It does. If those British citizens try to establish a rights-respecting government on parts of Fascist Spain, they cannot do it in UK’s name if they have not been authorized by the British government, and they are not entitled to help from UK. They are on their own. On the other hand, UK had the right to eliminate the Franco’s régime in order to install a rights-respecting government, and could have done it if it was in its legitimate interests.

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Jon Southall: I don’t think there is anything wrong with referring to a community […] what gives a state jurisdiction?

I didn’t say it was wrong, or even that the concept is invalid. I said only that it is irrelevant in our context: the fact that (some) members of a community/group own some land is not the source of the legitimacy of the government/state claim for holding sovereignty over that land.

Sovereignty of a country and its jurisdiction (the right to implement its laws and institutions) over a territory are justified if it is rights-respecting and by the fact of being the first to do it on that territory.

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Jon Southall: Why do the individuals who are operating the Spanish state have jurisdiction over matters concerning UK citizens?

You mean – over matters concerning UK citizens when they are on the Spanish territory? Simply because these UK citizens are on the Spanish territory! The authority of the Spanish government extends over all persons present in Spain, irrespective of their origin, citizenship, etc. This is so not only in theory, but also in practice. If a UK citizen commits a crime in Spain, or buys a chunk of land, it is the Spanish law which is applied.

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Jon Southall: Also under your idea, if say a large group of Americans decided to live in a foreign country where the state fails to respect and protect the rights of individuals, would you agree than an implication would be they could claim that the state there has no jurisdiction, giving them the right to put in place a new state covering the territory in which they live.

No, they could not – for the reason I stated in the similar question by DonAthos.

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Devil’s Advocate : A government is property owned by the individuals who create and maintain it.

I have no Idea what you mean.

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Devil’s Advocate: The sum of all territories [on which a certain jurisdiction applies] is the sum of all individual claims to property, which in turn establishes the jurisdiction of those property owners; and the sovereignty is their sovereignty.

I am afraid you/we have a terminology problem, because individuals do not have jurisdiction or sovereignty – over anything-, only government and its institutions do. Individuals may have property and the right to use and dispose of it; it is not jurisdiction or sovereignty that they have over their property.

47 minutes ago, AlexL said:

I have no Idea what you mean.

I am afraid you/we have a terminology problem, because individuals do not have jurisdiction or sovereignty – over anything-, only government and its institutions do. Individuals may have property and the right to use and dispose of it; it is not jurisdiction or sovereignty that they have over their property.

“… The only proper functions of a government are: the police… the army… and the courts…” ~ ARL, Government

 Who owns the police station, the army and the courts?  These are not voluntary services that just happen according to unique rules of justice.  The people own the government and the services it delivers on those properties (territories) they have jurisdiction over.  The American government is an experiment in self-governance, and to the degree it’s successful, it allows individuals to retain sovereignty over their own lives and property; and they remain free to dispose of it by vote, or force if necessary.

Private property implies sovereignty and having the jurisdiction to dispose of as the individual owner chooses.  If he doesn’t have these powers, then term private is where the error lies.

I agree with Devil’s Advocate’s explanation above, because his line of thinking makes more sense to me.

A government is created by individuals from within a specific community. Individuals who work in the government come from the community, and their “customers” are individuals from within the community that has established it. The soverienty lies in the lives and property of all the individuals whom the government serves, its jurisdiction must surely relate to the community - the individual members, their lives and property.

Hypothetically, if we wanted to create an Objectivist state, why couldn’t we just do this within existing territories; the new community of Objectivists - the individuals would have mutually recognised sovereignty over their own lives and property and would self-govern. Why would its jurisdiction not take precedence over the existing state or authority, other than for reasons that the existing authority would use force to prevent them from establishing a new community-based (rather than territory-based) state?

11 minutes ago, Jon Southall said:

Why would its jurisdiction not take precedence over the existing state or authority, other than for reasons that the existing authority would use force to prevent them from establishing a new community-based (rather than territory-based) state?

Whether it is territory-based or “community-based”, what does this mean in real concrete terms: i.e. what will these people do differently? If this new government is some type of mutually agreed arbitration, it may be legal in the eyes of the existing government. On the other hand, will they continue to pay taxes that they used to pay, will they continue to obey the laws on environment, job-safety, etc. that they were previously obeying? No matter where you live – Russia or USA – if you break the law of that government, that government will probably react against you. If you do so under the color of forming a new state, you might add sedition to the other charges.

You brush this aside as if it is not important, but if we’re talking about actionable thinking, this is almost an immutable  metaphysical reality.

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

I am not sure what you mean.

Thanks for taking the time to reply!

As for what I meant by the portion of my post in question, I had thought that I was agreeing with you! :slight_smile: You had written:

On 12/15/2015 at 5:09 AM, AlexL said:

First of all, the “community”, whatever it means, has nothing to do with this. A “community” has no particular rights, only individuals have.

To which I then responded:

On 12/15/2015 at 6:42 AM, DonAthos said:

First let me agree with the above: the only rights are individual rights. Anything a “government” (which is still a collection of individuals) has the right to do may only come from individual rights.

So it initially strikes me as a curiosity that you wouldn’t grasp my meaning here… unless, perhaps, we don’t mean the same thing and I misunderstand you entirely. In which case, truly, this may be a fruitful area to explore!

So let me throw out some thoughts and I’ll ask you to please tell me where we agree and/or disagree:

  1. A group, as such, has no rights. Only the individuals which comprise that group have rights, and each individual has the same rights. (For convenience, let us call these “individual rights,” which is a redundant construction but I find that it helps me to express/retain my intended meaning, and especially in discussion.)

  2. A “government” is some group of people who claim a monopoly of force, or the legitimate use of retaliatory force, or however we would like to phrase this (Rand has it: “the exclusive power to enforce certain rules of social conduct”). Normally we might add something about territory, jurisdiction or geographic area, etc., but since that’s the very thing which is being questioned, and since it doesn’t speak directly to my current point, we’ll forebear.

Being a group of people such as discussed in my #1, we find that the government, as such, has no rights. Only the individuals which comprise the government have rights.

  1. The individuals who comprise the government do not have any right, more or less, than any other individual. In the essay “Collectivized ‘Rights’,” Ayn Rand wrote:

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A man can neither acquire new rights by joining a group nor lose the rights which he does possess.

 

When a man becomes a police officer (“joins that group”), he does not thereby acquire any new rights; he has only the same rights he always had. Thus

  1. Anything a “government” (which is still a collection of individuals) has the right to do may only come from individual rights.

_____________________

I hope that this breakdown clarifies my intending meaning, but again, please do let me know where we potentially disagree. Or if we agree on every point, please say that, too! :slight_smile:

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

Remember, we all have the exactly same individual rights, but most of us are not authorized, for example, to question a suspect, as a police officer is.

Well, but this is the interesting bit, isn’t it? First, let me assure you that we agree on this much: I cannot, as presently constituted, rightly act in the manner of a police officer.

But we might do well to ask: why not? The difference you cite is “authority,” but isn’t that the very question we’re examining? Where does this “authority” come from? If I, qua individual, have no authority to question a suspect, then where does the police officer get his from? His boss? That merely pushes the question back another level, but it brings us no closer to answering it.

Suppose I were to proclaim myself a police officer and pin a badge to my chest. I suspect you would say that I still have no authority to act as a police officer would, but why not? Assuming that my badge is as shiny as any other, and that I am bound to respect the rights of others as any legitimate officer would, what’s the special sauce I would be missing?

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

In this case the legitimate claim to authority has the one which was the first to establish on that territory a rights-respecting régime.

I guess there are a couple of issues to sort out here, but let’s start with the direct claim. (Please forgive the absurdity of the example I’m about to introduce, but I want to try to clarify this as much as possible…)

Okay.

So we’re on Gilligan’s Isle. Do you mean to say that authority is a matter of “dibs”? That the first of our castaways to proclaim himself “the government” is the government, and has the proper authority to thereafter act as government?

We’ll say that it is the Skipper (which seems likeliest to me). He says that he’s in charge and everyone else must do as he commands. And then, so long as the Skipper respects the others rights, we would say that the other castaways must submit to his authority.

Do I have this right? Or do you mean something else?

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

It does. If those British citizens try to establish a rights-respecting government on parts of Fascist Spain, they cannot do it in UK’s name if they have not been authorized by the British government…

Well, I would suppose they’re doing it in their own name.

But doesn’t this conflict with what you said in response to Jon Southall? He had asked about this:

On 12/16/2015 at 4:58 AM, Jon Southall said:

Also under your idea, if say a large group of Americans decided to live in a foreign country where the state fails to respect and protect the rights of individuals, would you agree than an implication would be they could claim that the state there has no jurisdiction, giving them the right to put in place a new state covering the territory in which they live.

To which you replied:

13 hours ago, AlexL said:

No, they could not – for the reason I stated in the similar question by DonAthos.

So I’m confused. Would a group of British citizens have the right to reject the authority/jurisdiction of Fascist Spain and proclaim their own state on that territory (in their own name)? Or would they not?

(Or maybe I misunderstand you and need further clarification.)

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

…and they are not entitled to help from UK. They are on their own.

I’m not 100% certain I understand your meaning, here. While they might not be “entitled” to help in the sense of “being owed,” I should hope that they would be “allowed” to receive help, if it should be offered to them. Just as the American revolutionaries were not “on their own,” but were assisted by the French.

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

On the other hand, UK had the right to eliminate the Franco’s régime in order to install a rights-respecting government, and could have done it if it was in its legitimate interests.

Yes, agreed.

On 12/14/2015 at 4:05 PM, Jon Southall said:

Thanks all, this is a very interesting discussion.

What is the basis of a ‘national claim’ to sovereignty or jurisdiction over a territory?

Individual rights. That is the goal of Objectivist politics: the protection of individual rights. Establishing a government that has sovereignty over a territory is the only (known) way of achieving that goal.

As I explained above, the alternative you are proposing would fail to achieve that goal. So are all other alternatives that I’ve ever heard of. 

2 Likes

2 hours ago, Jon Southall said:

Hypothetically, if we wanted to create an Objectivist state, why couldn’t we just do this within existing territories; the new community of Objectivists - the individuals would have mutually recognized sovereignty over their own lives and property and would self-govern. Why would its jurisdiction not take precedence over the existing state or authority, other than for reasons that the existing authority would use force to prevent them from establishing a new community-based (rather than territory-based) state?

It’s an interesting question and it suggests a moral jurisdiction to me that in some respects is already in place.  Consider for example the kind of moral exemption to national law Kentucky Clerk Kim Davis invoked and is getting away with to some degree.  Could a philosophical separation from state be formed using the church from state model?  Certainly Ayn Rand proposed this kind of thing for business, but I doubt any existing state would want to divorce its cash cow.

But a community of philosophers without borders?  Now that’s something I’d enjoy exploring.

1 Like

Snerd, Nicky

The problem I have with your thinking is that it is contradictory. On the one hand you claim that the basis of national claim to jurisdiction is individual rights. That is a premise that I think the three of us are all in agreement with.

Nicky then contradicts this by asserting for practical purposes, a governing authority must be territorial. This means pragmatics are trumping rights. It’s collectivistic thinking, because it means the rights of individuals can be sacrificed when respecting and protecting them would be impractical (from the perspective of the group of individuals who are claiming jurisdiction) - even when it is not concerning the life or property of any of their own members.

If Nicky you are making the point that it would be easier and more effective to govern when members of a community live together territorially then we would agree, but the fact this is true does not necessitate it. 

Snerd, this leads me on to your post. The contradiction is similar to Nicky’s, you think the emergent community requires the permission of the other community. I see no legitimate reason why, so long as it does not breach the rights of those individuals.

In practice if a group of Objectivists wanted to form its own independent community, and self-govern by establishing a borderless government whose jurisdiction is grounded in the lives and property of its members, I want to know why this can’t happen. Apart from the fact governments would intervene by force.

If it is the fear or force only, then I would conclude none of our governments are truly interested in protecting and respecting individual rights. How could such a conclusion be taken seriously?

To be a dog is to be a dog, regardless of the fact some masters hold a longer lead than others. 

27 minutes ago, Jon Southall said:

Snerd, this leads me on to your post. …

In practice if a group of Objectivists wanted to form its own independent community, and self-govern by establishing a borderless government whose jurisdiction is grounded in the lives and property of its members, I want to know why this can’t happen. Apart from the fact governments would intervene by force.

I really was not addressing the question of whether such a group would have the moral high ground against their current government (we’re assuming the existing government violates rights as a matter of principle). I was merely saying that you were sweeping away the “in practice” part as if it were no big deal, but it was actually a huge deal.

 

27 minutes ago, Jon Southall said:

If it is the fear or force only, then I would conclude none of our governments are truly interested in protecting and respecting individual rights. How could such a conclusion be taken seriously?

To be a dog is to be a dog, regardless of the fact some masters hold a longer lead than others. 

What aspect of that conclusion do you think is false? I can understand those who say that the U.S. is a pretty free country using many yardsticks, even though the government restricts many other areas. However in your last line you say that a government that violates even a small sliver of rights is “not interested in protecting rights”. Yet your question seems to say that you conclude that one or more current, existing government actually does protect all forms of individual rights? What am I missing?

 

Also, I did not say that " … the basis of national claim to jurisdiction is individual rights". Perhaps that was aimed at some other post, but I thought I’d clarify anyway.  

Disclaimer:

I’ve skimmed the first page and I haven’t read any of the second, yet; I don’t have much time. Please forgive me for any dead-horse-abuse.

 

On 12/14/2015 at 8:05 AM, Jon Southall said:

What is the basis of a ‘national claim’ to sovereignty or jurisdiction over a territory [if not property rights]?

A nation’s claim to its geographical area stems, in part, from the fact that most societies are geographically-based (and I’m just using “society” to mean a group of individuals who tend to interact and cooperate with each other). All things being equal, your nextdoor neighbor’s actions are usually going to impact your life much more than those of some stranger on the opposite end of the world. Furthermore, all material property has to be somewhere. Even the internet, which we usually think of as some disembodied entity, is essentially a program that runs on countless computers, across the world (and inside of those computers, that disembodied “program” is basically a certain pattern of physical switches and gates, each of which has a distinct location).

Given the fact that both you and any thing you own must be somewhere, the act of controlling your own environment (which is a necessary part of the way that human beings ought to live) means to control the things in your own geographical area. That’s what I think it means to “own” a plot of land: you’re claiming the exclusive right to arrange the things in that area, however you see fit, and to forbid anyone else from messing with them.

On 12/14/2015 at 8:05 AM, Jon Southall said:

What is the basis of the claim to it when it is not private property? Is it just force-based?

Unfortunately, that’s usually the case in the world, as it is right now.

 

Ideally, just as we might build an army as a direct extension of our individual rights to defend ourselves, the geographical influence of our government should be a direct extension of the -geographical rights?- (the property rights, as applied to location) of its citizens. Meaning that a citizen of the UK should be able to invoke UK law on himself and his property, wherever they happen to be (although nobody has a “right” to violate anyone else’s rights, regardless of which laws in which countries might sanction it).

 

The way it is right now, the NSA is currently demanding that Microsoft hand over a litany of its clients’ private information, despite the fact that it’s all stored in foreign servers; arguing its legality on the grounds that those servers are the private property of American citizens (specifically, Microsoft’s shareholders). This means that it’s OK to violate geographical boundaries, in order to violate property rights, which provides a great demonstration of the precisely wrong way to look at it.

 

On 12/14/2015 at 8:05 AM, Jon Southall said:

I can’t fully work out how a hypothetical Objectivist state would accept a moral relativism of this kind, unless the differences were so trivial in extent as to render them unimportant.

The same way an Objectivist individual should, when faced with a potential violation of their rights: to carefully weigh, within the context of their own ambitions and priorities, what kind of response (if any) would be most worthwhile. So, for example, you shouldn’t set out to get caught selling drugs in order to tell the Supreme Court that it has no right to engage in such prohibitions. However, if your #1 goal in life is to run a successful business and somebody tries to force you to ruin it (to run it in some way that’s doomed to failure), you’d better find a way to fight it. It’s all a matter of cost-benefit analysis.

 

If I delegated my right to retaliation to somebody else then I’d expect them to use it at least as well as I would, if not better.

Snerd, 

My point was that if objectivists wanted to establish their own state, perhaps operating borderlessly, then force would be initiated against them.

You seem to think America is a free nation, yet I think it likely that Americans would not respect the emergent sovereignty of a new community, it would initiate or threaten lethal force to make them comply, for example if they refused to pay American taxes or comply with American regulations. The government would view it as sedition.

My point is that if the basis of sovereignty is individual rights, individuals ought to be free to decide which community they want to be a part of, and within that community govern themselves, provided they do not initiate force. Furthermore this community does not need to be located in one territory, although practically this would be better.

A case in point. Israel. Jewish people purchased land and established a new state after ww2. Is the jurisdiction of Israel legitimate or not?

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Devil’s Advocate :  … Private property implies sovereignty and having the jurisdiction to dispose of as the individual owner chooses.

No, private property cannot imply (i.e. give rise to) sovereignty because:

- sovereignty is the prerogative of a state/government of having the power to define and implement laws (on a territory),

  • while private property and ownership presupposes the existence of a government which defines and enforces property deeds

It looks like the fallacy of denying the antecedent.

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DonAthos : Anything a “government” (which is still a collection of individuals) has the right to do may only come from individual rights.

I objected to the implication that anything a “government” has the right to do come from individual rights of the government officials. I specified that persons who are also government officials exercise their function not because of their individual rights, but as their specific duties ; I guess you overlooked this.

In detail: The government (the state) is instituted to perform a number of functions. Under a proper government, a number of institutions are defined (police, army, justice), together with a limitative list of their sub-functions and detailed procedures. In this way, the functions and procedures are not rights given to the state, but strictly limited duties. They do originate in people’s individual rights, but their protection is being delegated, they become government’s duties. To the extent that these functions cannot be (yet) performed by robots ;-), people are hired (or delegated) in order to perform these duties – through strictly defined procedures. Again, those are not rights given to the government officials, but strictly limited duties. In order to perform these duties, people have to be specifically commissioned for this. IOW, not everybody can proclaim himself a police officer.

Now about competing claims of sovereignty over a territory. The specific case was UK and Spain, both right-respecting states. UK has no legitimate claim over Spain territory, because Spain is rights-respecting and it is already there. It was for such a context that I said “the legitimate claim to authority has the one which was the first to establish on that territory a rights-respecting régime”.

So that your “Gilligan’s Island” case is completely different. I will only say this for now: if Skipper says he respects others’ rights, but also that he’s in charge and everyone else must submit to his authority, then he has deep mental problems :wink:

 

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DonAthos : 2) A “government” is some group of people who claim a monopoly of force, or the legitimate use of retaliatory force…

No, as I explained, it is misleading to say that a government is a number of people with special rights. They are people commissioned to carry some specific, circumscribed, duties.

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DonAthos : Would a group of British citizens have the right to reject the authority/jurisdiction of Fascist Spain and proclaim their own state on that territory (in their own name)? Or would they not?

Yes, they would. I obviously misread: you mentioned those people’s citizenship (American) and I thought they intended to proclaim the territory as being American. Otherwise, their citizenship(s) are irrelevant.

Further.  My “they are not entitled to help from UK” should mean " they are not entitled to help from the UK government"

Did I skip something important?

12 hours ago, AlexL said:

I objected to the implication that anything a “government” has the right to do come from individual rights of the government officials.

Here, once more, is the statement to which you objected (and which I’ve now expanded upon at length):

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First let me agree with the above: the only rights are individual rights. Anything a “government” (which is still a collection of individuals) has the right to do may only come from individual rights.

 

I disagree that there is any “implication” in this that some official has any “right” apart from any one else. Hopefully my taking the time to clarify has helped you to understand my meaning, as here, directly:

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The individuals who comprise the government do not have any right, more or less, than any other individual.

But then I’ll also say that these officials have the same rights, qua individual, as any one else… so yes, strictly speaking, anything a “government” has the right to do does come from the individual rights of the government officials, so long as it is understood that you and I have the same rights, equally.

If not, then I suppose we are left to imagine some magical source of the right of governance, like God and “the divine right of kings,” or that there is no “right” at all apart from the might of whomsoever proclaims himself in charge.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

I specified that persons who are also government officials exercise their function not because of their individual rights, but as their specific duties ; I guess you overlooked this.

If I’ve overlooked anything, it was only in my zealousness to clarify my meaning (which I had judged misunderstood). But let’s correct that oversight here:

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

In detail: The government (the state) is instituted to perform a number of functions.

Yes.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

Under a proper government, a number of institutions are defined (police, army, justice), together with a limitative list of their sub-functions and detailed procedures.

All right.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

In this way, the functions and procedures are not rights given to the state, but strictly limited duties.

No, there are not “rights given to the state” (which is also not something I’ve said, I don’t believe), but anything that the state–or its agents–do is, of necessity, an exercise of individual right (and again, the same individual rights that you or I have). I don’t see the utility of distinguishing that from “duty,” here, and I fear the potential for misstep accordingly. But let’s continue.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

They do originate in people’s individual rights…

Précisément!

(This is what I’ve been saying, and what you appear to have taken issue with, but I suppose we’re now too far invested for that to matter much…)

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

…but their protection is being delegated…

Yes, government represents a delegation… this is a not unimportant point to the question(s) before us, I believe. What is the specific nature of this “delegation”? What is (or ought to be) its mechanism, in reality? I imagine that we shall come back to this, and find it central.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

…they become government’s duties. To the extent that these functions cannot be (yet) performed by robots ;-), people are hired (or delegated) in order to perform these duties – through strictly defined procedures.

Yes, I think this helps to clarify a bit, if we imagine the government in the role of hired help. Yet, while there is a sense in which a cook, say, has a “duty,” in that the cook has been hired to do something specific (cook) and is thus expected to do that thing (and not, say, wash the cat), I would never set that against, or as being apart from, the cook’s individual rights, or say that the cook’s vocation was anything other than an expression of his individual rights. I grow increasingly concerned that this use of “duty” is more apt to confuse than clarify, and that it might hide some yet-submerged difference of opinion.

Specifically, I don’t see how it is meant to contend with anything I’ve said to this point, though I trust that… somehow it must. Otherwise, what are we arguing about at all? :slight_smile:

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

Again, those are not rights given to the government officials, but strictly limited duties.

I agree that the “delegation of rights” upon which a proper government acts is strictly limited. I continue to balk at your use of the term “duty,” though perhaps your meaning is unobjectionable, and I’m only reacting this way based on things like this quote from Rand’s essay “Causality Versus Duty”:

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One of the most destructive anti-concepts in the history of moral philosophy is the term “duty.”

An anti-concept is an artificial, unnecessary and rationally unusable term designed to replace and obliterate some legitimate concept. The term “duty” obliterates more than single concepts; it is a metaphysical and psychological killer: it negates all the essentials of a rational view of life and makes them inapplicable to man’s actions . . . .

 

But assuming that Rand is not here speaking to your use of the term (and currently I believe that she is not), I’ll try to let go of some of my discomfort as we continue.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

In order to perform these duties, people have to be specifically commissioned for this.

Ah. Now we’re getting somewhere.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

IOW, not everybody can proclaim himself a police officer.

People have to be specifically commissioned? By whom? If it does not do for a police officer to proclaim himself such, then who possesses the power to make a (legitimate) police officer out of an ordinary citizen?

Or when you say “not everybody can proclaim himself a police officer,” do you mean to imply that some people, some lucky few, can proclaim themselves police officers? I wouldn’t think so, but otherwise we have yet to put our finger on precisely where a police officer gets his authority from.

But are you quite sure I cannot proclaim myself a police officer (in right, I mean; not according to contemporary law wherever we happen to live)? If I were to swear myself to upholding the principles of proper governance (taking upon myself what you cast as “the duties of government”), then what do you believe ought to stop me, in reason? If what the government does is right, then why cannot I act likewise?

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

Now about competing claims of sovereignty over a territory. The specific case was UK and Spain, both right-respecting states. UK has no legitimate claim over Spain territory, because Spain is rights-respecting and it is already there. It was for such a context that I said “the legitimate claim to authority has the one which was the first to establish on that territory a rights-respecting régime”.

Probably we have enough on our plate without discussing contemporary politics too much, but I do wonder… when you describe Spain (or the UK) as being “rights-respecting,” what is your criterion? Personally, I live in the United States, and while I regard it as being relatively rights-respecting in comparison to other governments, contemporary and historical, I also know (as is oft decried on these very forums) how the government of the US taxes and regulates and, in general, violates the principles of just governance. That is to say, the US government routinely violates rights. Why, the source of its funding in everything it does is predicated on the violation of rights!

This may or may not be at issue between us, but it might matter to the present discussion if we were to toy with the idea (as others in the thread have already seemingly begun) of establishing a “Galt’s Gulch.” Whether in Spain, or the UK, or here in the US, wouldn’t such a thing then become “the first to establish on that territory a rights-respecting régime”? Or would you see that as a competition between two “right-respecting states,” and thus say that those Objectivists should not be allowed to establish an independent government within some preexisting state?

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

So that your “Gilligan’s Island” case is completely different.

Perhaps so, but at present I do not see how.

10 hours ago, AlexL said:

I will only say this for now: if Skipper says he respects others’ rights, but also that he’s in charge and everyone else must submit to his authority, then he has deep mental problems :wink:

Have you seen the show? Gilligan is his best friend, his “little buddy,” leading him continually into disaster after disaster; certainly the Skipper has some deep mental problems! :slight_smile:

But… isn’t this otherwise your claim? That some government sets up shop (somehow) on a territory, proclaiming itself to be in charge, and demands that everyone else must submit to its authority, and because it is the first to do so, this becomes legitimized?

I understand you consider what you’re saying as being different from the Skipper proclaiming himself in charge of the island, but again, I have yet to understand the difference.

Following the example of the American Revolution, Objectivists could proclaim independence by explaining why a separation from existing governments is necessary along with the intention to form a borderless community of sovereign individuals. Assurances of non-aggression and an intention to follow the law of the land until their independence is officially recognized would seem a prudent step to take. The declaration would be sent instantly via the internet to all governments. A group of Objectivist representatives could then petition the United Nations for a status of diplomatic immunity.

 

There are at least three legal precedents I’m aware of that make the scenario possible:

 

1) The establishment of Indian Reservations which essentially operate independently within the United States.

 

2) The immunity invoked by conscientious objection, generally respected to some degree by existing governments.

 

3) The American model of a separation of church and state that includes exemption from taxation.

 

Any deal breakers thus far?

Edit: For the purposes of this discussion, I’m calling calling this project, “O Nation”

 

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3 hours ago, Devil’s Advocate said:

Any deal breakers thus far?

Well,after you stop paying your taxes… .. they may not allow you to access internet discussion forums from jail :slight_smile:  

Again, prudence would allow that the future citizens of O Nation agreed in advance to continue following the law of the land until they were officially recognized by the existing local government and/or granted diplomatic immunity by the UN.  This would be consistent with bringing their grievances to court in respect for existing law, as suggested by Ayn Rand, prior to taking a more confrontational stand.

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On 12/17/2015 at 10:21 PM, Jon Southall said:

Snerd, Nicky

The problem I have with your thinking is that it is contradictory. On the one hand you claim that the basis of national claim to jurisdiction is individual rights. That is a premise that I think the three of us are all in agreement with.

Nicky then contradicts this by asserting for practical purposes, a governing authority must be territorial. This means pragmatics are trumping rights.

Give an example of a right being violated by the government Ayn Rand describes in her non-fiction.