This is one of the few topics on which I have been unable to reconcile my own beliefs with the principles of Objectivism.
Why does Objectivism seem to hold that nothing can influence human behavior? In Galt’s speech, he states that the idea of humans having a “tendency” towards one form of behavior is irrational. To which I ask, why? If individual humans do not have different behavioral tendencies, then all of psychology is false.
Skinnerian conditioning would not work. In reality, however, Skinnerian conditioning works quite well if done properly, as is demonstrable by any parent with small children. Whatever Skinner’s philosophical flaws (and there are many), I believe his work on conditioning to be one of the greatest scientific revolutions of the past 100 years.
If humans cannot have a “tendency” to choose to act one way or the other based on prior conditioning, what is the purpose of punishing your children or raising them to be the kinds of people you want them to be?
If there is no tendency to act a certain way based on conditioning, why are people on this board so adamant about “punishing” terrorism, such that terrorists will recognize they cannot win and, therefore, stop committing terrorist acts?
If there is no tendency to act a certain way based on cultural upbringing, how do you explain that the Middle East is predominantly Muslim and the West predominantly Christian?
If there is no tendency to act a certain way based on genetics, how do you explain the fact that children, separated from the criminal parents at birth, are more likely to become criminals than biological children of non-criminals in the same situation?
I believe firmly in free will. I believe that every human being makes choices to commit certain acts. I also believe, based on the mounds of evidence, that different people lean towards different behaviors, based on a number of factors, including conditioning, cultural upbringing, and genetics. I don’t see that this is at odds with free will. If I were a kleptomaniac, I would have a very strong urge to steal, but I would still have to make the conscious choice to do it. Some people have to exercise greater restraint than others, in any kind of action, be it criminal, sexual, or just about anything else. I believe everyone should exert as much moral effort as is necessary to avoid doing something immoral, but I am willing to grant that the amount of moral effort required will vary from person to person. Am I wrong or am I misunderstanding the stance of Objectivism?