Hi, over winter break I’ve been listening (or re-listening, as in the present case) to some lecture courses, most recently Leonard Peikoff’s Objectivism Through Induction. In the first lecture of the course Dr. Peikoff makes a point which, as I recall, I never really understood or agreed with when I originally listened to the course, and which I still find quite confusing. He essentially states that the law of causality does not follow deductively from the axiom of identity, but rather that it (causality) must be induced independently through the observation of a wide range of concretes.
My understanding of Peikoff’s argument is as follows: The validation for the law of cause and effect is not its connection to identity (which is only grasped later in the process of integration) but the fact that, time and time again, entities are observed to act in a lawful fashion. We look out into reality and observe that when dropped, balloons float into the sky and rocks fall to the ground. When shaken, rattles make noise and pillows remain silent. (These are some of the examples given in the lecture). Since there is no proper distinction between necessary and contingent facts, between “it is” and “it must be”, to discover that entities do act lawfully is to discover that those entities must act lawfully. Hence after observing a huge number of entities across a broad spectrum of existence (enough to exhaust all of the signifiant kinds of entities known within our present context), all of which have in the past acted in certain specific ways, we are justified in forming an inductive principle: “Entities of a certain kind act in a certain fashion, and only in that fashion.”
My problem is that I do not understand how one can validate the inductive process itself (i.e. solve the so-called “problem of induction”) without first assuming that causality is true. In other words, the law of causality seems to be at the base of induction, in the same way as existence, identity, and consciousness are at the base of the hierarchy of knowledge. Trying to validate something at the base of induction by using the process of induction would then be hopelessly circular.
I found a few past threads dealing with the problem of induction, most notably this one, where several knowledgeable Objectivists take the position that a given induction is valid if and only if one can establish a causal link between an observed phenomenon and the identities of the entities involved, and from what thinking I’ve done on the issue so far, I agree. Take the rock versus balloon example again. Say we observe 1000 times that the rock falls and the balloon floats. Without already having grasped that an entity’s action at a given moment is caused by its identity, how can we ever be sure that on the 1001st time the rock will not fly off into space and the balloon will not shoot down to the ground? Or, without identifying causality as a corollary of the law of identity, how can we be sure that cause and effect applies to previously undiscovered entities, such as quantum particles?
I know that Dr. Peikoff has a second course on the topic of induction, Induction in Physics and Philosophy, where he may discuss these issues further, so if anyone has listened to this latter course, could you explain a bit further his theory and how the law of causality can be induced (or if this has been discussed before in these terms, which is probably the case, point me to some relevant past posts)?
Thanks!