Induction

*** Mod’s note: Split from thread on abortion (for link, see quote), as this addresses a far broader question ***

It is an inductive generalization that begins with our own direct, introspective awareness of our own consciousness, and subsumes other, similar creatures (such as other human beings). If you think that we have no way to know that a being is conscious, then on what basis do you say that any other people are rational, and therefore that they have rights? You have undercut your whole anti-abortion argument, because based on this reasoning, you could presumably reach the conclusion that murder is not wrong at all, not only as applied to fetuses, but to anyone.

However, as indicated above, there is plenty of objective evidence that they are in fact conscious. (Whether that consciousness is yet conceptual or not and whether or not that makes a difference is another question, but one that I suppose does not need to be addressed here, since it is apparently not within your range.)

AshRyan,

You said the fact that a fetus has not a consciousness is now inductively generalized. First: induction is not Logic. Logic does not deal with inductive reasonings b/c inductive reasoning’s conclusions do not strictly follow from the assumed premises. They may be ‘useful’ for heuristic purposes but it cannot be said that their conclusions are validly derived from the propositions operating as premises.

Now, try to validate induction in a non-circular way.

The problem here is some randians reluctance to confront seriously philosophical issues such as the problem of universals, causation and some more. Particularly, psychologism. States of mind are private, and so they will remain: that’s why you cannot prove whether a fetus, a chimp or a grown up individual has a consciousness or not. You don’t have to be a kantian to affirm this: you simply cannot ask for a demostratio of a fetus’ consciousness, since it’s a supra-empirical notion. You could certainly aim to describe the external characteristics of a fetus and predict its development. But you can’t, by no means, dig in his consciousness but in a hermeneutic way.

This problem arises as a result of somewhat blending an entirely deductive metaphysical system, such as Rand’s, with so-called “positive sciences”, which happen to be in the domain of empirical sciences.

When does life begins? When does consciousness arises? We don’t know. There is a continuum between life and death, between inanimated matter and self-conscious one. For example, scientists haven’t yet reached to an agreement as to whether viruses are living creatures or not.

The thing is that classifications are not intrinsically ‘good’ or ‘bad.’ But the notion of ‘human being’ -‘rational being’ or whatever be the case, is intrinsically prescriptive. These categories are not ‘true’ nor ‘false’ either. Biological categories are ‘better’ or ‘worse’ for specific purposes, such as understanding the similarities between hamsters and rats, both belonging to the same genus. But, moreover, the type of knowledge you are referring to is one not neccessarily true, as in the case of deductive derivation of conclusions from a given set of axioms. And just one little more thing: by no means can you derive an ‘ought’ from a ‘biological being.’

You must realize you are all heirs of Occam. And, paradoxically, simple answer to metaphysical issues in which universals are involved, such as ‘rationality’, ‘life’ and so forth are likely to be wrong.

We might culturally assume today that a one-month-old fetus is not a rational being. But, again, this does not strictly follow from Rand’s principles alone but in conjunction with an extra set of biological conjectures, which happen to be the result of years of scientific discovery and investigation. And scientific divergences do not arise from intellectual dishonesty, but of different interpretations of the world, non incompatible with the principles shared by the followers of different scientific communities. (Otherwise, communication between them should be fruitless.)

As regards different types of ‘Objectivism’ let me said that Ayn Rand’s texts still need to be interpreted by her followers. Differences of understanding may probably arise, as it has been the case. The very fact that communication is required for gaining a better understanding of the world as our knowledge expands, is the proof that knowledge is not objective, but inter-subjective.

I have a puzzle for those debating on this issue: if we are in the forest and see a moving thing which we can’t tell from the distance if it’s a living individual or a dangerous animal, should it be justified to shoot it?

Regards,

Ariel Reier

PS: Please forgive my modest English.

You said the fact that a fetus has not a consciousness is now inductively generalized. First: induction is not Logic. Logic does not deal with inductive reasonings b/c inductive reasoning’s conclusions do not strictly follow from the assumed premises.

I suggest that you do some preliminary research into both logic and Objectivist epistemology. I understand that there is a strand of logicians out there who mistakenly teach in intro logic classes that induction isn’t logic, but it actually is. There is, in fact, no definition of “logic” which can exclude induction from the domain of logic, save by adding the arbitrary clause “but not induction”. So before you plan to post anything more, I would suggest doing the background research; for Objectivism proper, that would be ITOE and OPAR. If you’re still interested at that point, I can direct you to relevant references in logic, including formal logic.

The correct term is “Objectivist”, not “randian”. Please note that we do not allow undeserved insulting behavior, nor is this forum to be used to promote other philosophies, such as rationalism. Vague generalizations such as that some “randians” have a reluctance to confront seriously philosophical issues are not acceptable – you need to name the people and the issues, and provide the proof that they have failed to confront these issues. Your concept of proof is flawed, though reading the basic readings might help: the fact that a state of mind is private is no argument that consciousness cannot be proven – I invite you to investigate what Rand refers to as “concept stealing” (a form of what is known as in Latin as petitio principii).

Finally, please pay attention to the forum rules especially regarding staying on topic. I hope that your next post, if any, includes an apology for your inappropriate behavior and remains on topic.

I have a puzzle for those debating on this issue: if we are in the forest and see a moving thing which we can’t tell from the distance if it’s a living individual or a dangerous animal, should it be justified to shoot it?

There is insufficient information in the premise “moving thing in a forrest” to determine whether or not it “should” be shot.

There is insufficient information in the premise “moving thing in a forrest” to determine whether or not it “should” be shot.

Exactly. What we are “justified in” is further investigation.

I suggest that you do some preliminary research into both logic and Objectivist epistemology. I understand that there is a strand of logicians out there who mistakenly teach in intro logic classes that induction isn’t logic, but it actually is. There is, in fact, no definition of “logic” which can exclude induction from the domain of logic, save by adding the arbitrary clause “but not induction”. So before you plan to post anything more, I would suggest doing the background research; for Objectivism proper, that would be ITOE and OPAR. If you’re still interested at that point, I can direct you to relevant references in logic, including formal logic.

The correct term is “Objectivist”, not “randian”. Please note that we do not allow undeserved insulting behavior, nor is this forum to be used to promote other philosophies, such as rationalism. Vague generalizations such as that some “randians” have a reluctance to confront seriously philosophical issues are not acceptable – you need to name the people and the issues, and provide the proof that they have failed to confront these issues. Your concept of proof is flawed, though reading the basic readings might help: the fact that a state of mind is private is no argument that consciousness cannot be proven – I invite you to investigate what Rand refers to as “concept stealing” (a form of what is known as in Latin as petitio principii).

Finally, please pay attention to the forum rules especially regarding staying on topic. I hope that your next post, if any, includes an apology for your inappropriate behavior and remains on topic.

I apologize for my phrase, which was certainly a bit unjustly aggressive.

You said you are ‘Objectivists’ and not ‘randians.’ Ok. However, science philosopher Karl Popper once called himself ‘realist/objectivist’ and, notwithstanding, he was not a follower of Ayn Rand’s system.

As regards induction, it isn’t Logic since there is no relationship of logical implication between the premises of an inductive reasoning and its conclusion.

It still stands my question for how to validate induction in a non-recurrent way…

Regards,

Ariel

You said you are ‘Objectivists’ and not ‘randians.’ Ok. However, science philosopher Karl Popper once called himself ‘realist/objectivist’ and, notwithstanding, he was not a follower of Ayn Rand’s system.

But this is not relevant.

As regards induction, it isn’t Logic since there is no relationship of logical implication between the premises of an inductive reasoning and its conclusion.

It still stands my question for how to validate induction in a non-recurrent way…

Please understand that this is a thread to discuss abortion, not a thread to advance David Hume’s position on induction. Besides, you are demanding a reason for why we should use reason. This sounds circular to me.

As regards induction, it isn’t Logic since there is no relationship of logical implication between the premises of an inductive reasoning and its conclusion.

This not being a logic / epistemology thread, I refer you to the search function, OPAR and ITOE, and then invite you to further your understanding of the nature of logic and induction at a later date, when you will understand the hopeless nature of a request to validate without means of validation.

This not being a logic / epistemology thread, I refer you to the search function, OPAR and ITOE, and then invite you to further your understanding of the nature of logic and induction at a later date, when you will understand the hopeless nature of a request to validate without means of validation.

I understand that you cannot validate deductive Logic -or just, Logic- by itself. However, when it comes to induction things are different.I understand this is not a logic/epistemology thread. However, I do also believe Objectivism is a whole system of thought which simply cannot be split into independent, autonomous branches so, in some occasions, it might happen that some ‘puzzles’ should be analyzed holistically.Regards,Ariel

But this is not relevant. Please understand that this is a thread to discuss abortion, not a thread to advance David Hume’s position on induction. Besides, you are demanding a reason for why we should use reason. This sounds circular to me.

Not if ‘inductive logic’ is not Logic…

I understand that you cannot validate deductive Logic -or just, Logic- by itself.

::: SNIP :::

Not if ‘inductive logic’ is not Logic…

You insist on using “Logic” despite your claim that you cannot validate it by itself. However, you demand a deductive proof for the validity of inductive reasoning. What makes deduction so special in your mind?

You insist on using “Logic” despite your claim that you cannot validate it by itself. However, you demand a deductive proof for the validity of inductive reasoning. What makes deduction so special in your mind?

Logical implication. Principles of Logic are derived from the A=A axiom through logical implication and inductive criteria are not. The source of them is the very same than of superstition.

Regards,

Ariel

Logical implication. Principles of Logic are derived from the A=A axiom through logical implication and inductive criteria are not.

So you assert the validity of deductive reasoning by using deductive reasoning. I still do not understand why you see deductive reasoning as “special” even though all you are doing is make a circular argument for its validity. However, inductive reasoning is still off limits to you.

How many things can you derive from A=A to discover the world? Why do you even bother posting on the forum? Why do you bother responding to me? Why do you bother doing anything? You cannot prove that any of these things exist. Did you derive all of these things from the Law of Non-contradiction?

Logical implication. Principles of Logic are derived from the A=A axiom through logical implication and inductive criteria are not. The source of them is the very same than of superstition.

Start by saying what logic is: give the definition of logic. Then state what “The Principles of Logic” are. Finally, present the proof that those are The Principles of Logic.

Start by saying what logic is: give the definition of logic. Then state what “The Principles of Logic” are. Finally, present the proof that those are The Principles of Logic.

I see your point: showing that I am in a circular argument when defending deductive logic as much as you are when talking about induction. For the sake of this conversation, I think we both share the belief that certain principles are not subject to criticism and among them are those of deduction. Ayn Rand derived them from identity. I also believe there is no need to demonstrate the validity of logic itself.

But many wrong system coherent within their own principles. However, this prooves nothing… Wrong systems are such when proved through rational criticism, in which logic (again, deductive logic) is involved.

But, please, take into account the following argument I stated above: owing to logical implication, once you have a set of true premises, its conclusion must needs to be true as well. However, when it comes to induction, this doesn’t happen, and the means by which conclusions are derived from premises relies heavily on rethorics. In other words, a deductive reasoning is formally valid, whereas an inductive one is not. In “postivist terms,” the former is analytically true.

Regards,

Regards,

Ariel

The set of methods that you are calling “logic” is only one part of logic as Objectivism would use the term.

… I think we both share the belief that certain principles are not subject to criticism and among them are those of deduction.

Every bit of knowledge must be validated in some way. If the set of methods that you call logic are not validated by a process of observation/induction, then any validation or worth you claim for them is simply faith.

I see your point: showing that I am in a circular argument when defending deductive logic as much as you are when talking about induction. For the sake of this conversation, I think we both share the belief that certain principles are not subject to criticism and among them are those of deduction. Ayn Rand derived them from identity.

I believe you don’t actually understand what I said. There is no circularity in defending induction; you may well believe that some principles are not subject to criticism but I reject that; deduction as a means of obtaining knowledge is in fact by definition circular; and Ayn and did not derive deduction from identity. The fact that you cannot even locate the definition of logic is rather significant, in my mind.

Now, <mod hat>

the former is analytically true

Stop it now. You persistence in using this forum to promulgate anti-Objectivist ideas is unacceptable. We don’t mind if you go away and behave this way elsewhere. We also do not mind if you ask honest questions about Objectivism here, but you’re been told where you need to do your basic reading (ITOE, OPAR), and you are wasting our time and bandwidth by ignoring these admonitions. So please do your basic homework on logic and Objectivism.</mod hat> We are always happy to explain things, as long as you don’t presuppose the denial of the explanation in your question.

Principles of Logic are derived from the A=A axiom through logical implication and inductive criteria are not.

Where did you get this axiom of logic, “A=A”? Similarly, where did you get these mechanisms of “logical implication” through which Principles of Logic are derived? Did you derive them somehow from some yet more fundamental principle? Did you get them from whim, priest, or king? Did you perform “rational intuition”, somehow “just knowing” that they are true? Or did you observe the world around you and notice that, in fact, things are what they are?

Ayn Rand defended her basic axioms on the last of these grounds: by looking around. How do you defend your basic axioms?

(Edit: This should be in another thread, shouldn’t it…?)

I believe you don’t actually understand what I said. There is no circularity in defending induction; you may well believe that some principles are not subject to criticism but I reject that; deduction as a means of obtaining knowledge is in fact by definition circular; and Ayn and did not derive deduction from identity. The fact that you cannot even locate the definition of logic is rather significant, in my mind.

Now, <mod hat>Stop it now. You persistence in using this forum to promulgate anti-Objectivist ideas is unacceptable. We don’t mind if you go away and behave this way elsewhere. We also do not mind if you ask honest questions about Objectivism here, but you’re been told where you need to do your basic reading (ITOE, OPAR), and you are wasting our time and bandwidth by ignoring these admonitions. So please do your basic homework on logic and Objectivism.</mod hat> We are always happy to explain things, as long as you don’t presuppose the denial of the explanation in your question.

Can I find those books online?

As regards Logic, it’s a formal discipline which studies the structure of reasonings and differentiates invalid from valid ones. To some others, it is also involved in understanding informal language, though I believe so-called “informal logic” belongs to rethorics…

Regards,

Ariel

Can I find those books online?

. Not in the “can I legally download a copy sense”; they are widely available via e.g. Amazon. You can also get Phil Olivers Objectivism Research CD which contains these plus all other writings of Rand.

As regards Logic, it’s a formal discipline which studies the structure of reasonings and differentiates invalid from valid ones.

No, that is incorrect. This is why I said that you should read ITOE and OPAR first. You might also read Aristotle of HWB Joseph’s logic book, but I was suggesting something that is more readable.

I think the problem really arises from the fact that you haven’t given sufficient thought to the fundamental axioms, regarding existence, identity and consciousness. You’re approaching a fundamental question with a umpteenth-order derived concept that excludes most of the actual topic of logic.