Here’s something I was thinking about this morning regarding the Geneva Conventions, in particular the part which forbids torturing prisoners of war, and whether or not the U.S. government is morally required to follow these laws.
I concluded that they are, for the following reasons. First, while it may be immoral to show mercy to someone who has committed an offense (I personally find the idea of forgiving any violation of rights at the expense of the victim completely abhorrent) it is also immoral to show unnecessary cruelty to an enemy, since this violates the principle of benevolence. Therefore, torture would only be morally justified if it served a purpose in terms of destroying an enemy (Specifically by producing useful information to bring them to justice) and I do not believe that torture does produce any useful information. I think that victims are much more likely to lie in order to end the torture (Especially if they’re being brutalized in order to extract information which does not exist) and the result of this is an act of extreme cruelty which yields no useful result.
It is also, in general, morally justifiable for the international community to establish rules to restrain the warmaking powers of states, and prevent unnecessary atrocities during the course of a war. (For instance, even if you believe that we would be morally justified in bombing a city in Iran if we were fighting a war in self-defense, it would still be immoral to do so if it served no strategic purpose.) And, if torture falls into this category, then it should be outlawed.
In addition, the U.S. government has voluntarily signed the Geneva Conventions prohibiting torture, and the Constitution requires the government to follow our treaties. So by torturing prisoners of war, the government is violating proper restraints placed upon it, and threatening the liberty of all its citizens. (Especially since the basis the government uses to justify torture blurs the line between prisoners of war and civilians accused of a crime.)