Everyone I discuss/debate with… end up saying something to the effect of laissez faire being “idealistic” or “impractical” since it doesn’t account for what it’s like in the “real world…”
How do others respond to this criticism against others?
Hmm. The problem here is that opponents (ironically) place laissez-faire and mixed systems on different ends of the “practicality” scale. You can’t compare two things, so long as one is “practical” and the other “impractical”: the “practical” one wins out by force.
So our objective here is to, first, put both ideas in the same space on this “practicality” scale :lol: Start on his turf: the opponent’s premise that mixed is practical, laissez is not. Show that to be wrong, and you’ve succeeded.
You either have to show that laissez is practical, or mixed is impractical. Ultimately, your goal is to do both, but first, remember you want him to accept that laissez is at least as practical/impractical as mixed. If he doesn’t accept that :dough: , then you can’t get the ultimate goal of flipping the script on his argument.
Showing that mixed is at least as impractical as laissez is better shown first. Showing the laissez is practical (i.e. based on reality) presupposes he can or will accept a lot of Objectivist ideas. Not likely.
Okay, the idea that mixed is practical. Laissez is “impractical” because it doesn’t have historical proof of its effectiveness, it assumes people will act in a certain way, it has no concern for the unable and doesn’t check the powerful. I’m assuming you’ve asked why it’s “impractical,” and an answer of one of the former types was given.
“Lack of historical proof,” were it true, wouldn’t make laissez impractical. Spaceships and computers lacked historical proof before they were demonstrated. If laissez is impractical, it’ll have to be proven by more than “it’s never been done before!” :fool:
Ask your adversary what assumptions does laissez make that mixed systems don’t. Laissez makes no more assumptions than mixed systems do about how people will act. What they generally mean by such suggestions is that laissez faire has less concern for the plight of the unable, which :nuke: isn’t an assumption of how people will act in the first place.
The idea that laissez is impractical because it has less concern for the weak and unable of society itself makes some assumptions. It assumes that concern for the weak, at the expense of the strong, should be a value of economic systems. And what basis does that assumption have? This tactic of opponents basically translates to “laissez is impractical because it’s mean.” That may or may not be true, but such an assumption makes it at least as assumptive as laissez. Ask why this mixed assumption is more “practical” than the laissez assumption. Galt would love to hear it :dough: