If by proper function of government you mean to say that the individual governs himself first and foremost then yes I understand quite well,
What I mean by the proper function of government is, as Rand expressed in ch. 1 of CUI, that
The only function of the government, in such a society, is the task of protecting man’s rights, i.e.., the task of protecting him from physical force; the government acts as the agent of man’s right of self-defense, and may use force only in retaliation and only against those who initiate its use; thus the government is the means of placing the retaliatory use of force under objective control.
and also in Ch. 3:
The only proper function of the government of a free country is to act as an agency which protects the individual’s rights, i.e., which protects the individual from physical violence.
This is because of man’s nature: he exists via reason and not force, and force is contrary to man’s nature. Force is possible – there exists thieves and murderers – and the proper function of government is to use force to retaliate against those who initiate force.
however, not all people of a country are so able or interested in such as as it may be it is up to those that do to make it known what is proper and improper, through the/a controlled medium of government system by way of written statuary law and the persons who enforce it such as judge and jury or, if need be, the individual himself as in the case of Howard Roark.
And what constitutes “proper” conduct from the perspective of government is to prohibit the use of force. That is, to quote from VOS ch. 14:
The precondition of a civilized society is the barring of physical force from social relationships—thus establishing the principle that if men wish to deal with one another, they may do so only by means of reason: by discussion, persuasion and voluntary, uncoerced agreement.
As far as hubris is concerned, I think you should reread what it said as I don’t think you fully understand.
I’m pretty sure I do fully understand.
That or I am not fully understanding you as I cannot see how anyone in their right mind could state so confidently that a law against hubris or acts of hubris can be wrong and restrictive of free speech.
As a reminder, it’s not a good idea to imply that I am insane. You have not given any argument to support a law against hubris; I’ve pointed out that given the proper function of government, no such law can be proper. It is right and proper to persuade people to act in the way you wish they would; it is wrong and improper to use force to achieve your ends.
Note that in an Objectivist society, there would be laws against murder, and no laws against suicide, yet suicide is morally wrong. Cheating on a loved one is immoral, but is not properly punishable by law. That is because the function of government is to address only a specific set of immoral actions – those where one person initiates force against another.
My estimation is that you don’t understand or accept the Objectivist view of the proper role of government. Can you support your viewpoint using the philosophy of Ayn Rand? While we no doubt agree on the immorality of certain actions, we clearly disagree on when it is proper for the government to use force – I side with Rand on this matter.