I lost the ability to use the forest! I don’t understand where you are coming from here??
I’m trying to figure out whether you are being overly pedantic on purpose or whether we have a genuine misunderstanding here.
I’d suggest another possibility, that the problem lies in your failure to really understand the concepts of value and loss. I might also point out that if you’re going to try to understand a general principle from a particular example, then you need to get your story straight about the example from the very start.
Now then, I can’t tell whether your use of the property was a crime in the first place or not. It’s not clear from your first post, but it seems that you were trespassing. The fact that you were not arrested is immaterial. Your second post doesn’t really change that – you’ve mentioned a rich man and an inheritance, but still I do’t see the evidence that you ever had permission to trespass. In post 10 you changed it to a grandfather who gave permission, though of course we have no idea what the form of that permission is and assuming the man was not a complete idiot, he probably knows the law regarding adverse possession and therefore did not in fact give the land away. Anyhow, you knew very well that that was not your land and that the grandfather could rescind permission at any time. Now if this had really been a value to you, you would have acted to keep this land: you would have negotiated with the grandfather to either purchase the land from him or put some appropriate condition in the will, if we are to assume that the grandfather has the same view of the forest as you seem to. But you did not, and that I take to be sufficient evidence that this was not really a top value for you. You did nothing to keep this land, neither with the grandfather nor the gransdon who seems to have sold it to the loggers.
Now as to your abilities: I assume that your legs, arms, and eyes still function (if they don’t, blame the NHS) so you have not lost your ability to enjoy the forest. You never had the right to enjoy the forest, and so that pretty much completes it. You may have in fact enjoyed the forest on specific instances, without the right to do so, and you have not lost those experiences. When you claim that you “lost the ability” to enjoy the forest, you are implicitly claiming that you lost a right that you had. But you did not have that right. If you would like to change the scenario again, whereby you leased the forest for your enjoyment for a period from 1995-2000, then again you were able to enjoy that right as long as it existed, and you did not lose that right. Of course if you are going to now tell us that you purchased a 20 year lease, then perhaps you have a cause of action having to do with breach (but check the wording in the lease).
In other words, you did not lose anything. You may have hoped, for no known rational reason, that you would be permitted the effortless enjoyment of the forest in perpetuity – you may have thought that it was something that you did not in fact have to act to keep – but a belief that you lost something does not actually constitute a loss. It is, simply, reality smacking you in the face, saying “I told you you should have bought that land 10 years ago”.
Also, don’t assume I’m being pedantic and I won’t assume you’re being a moron. Fair trade?