*** Split from That Kelley Creature - Page 3 ***
Stephen, pardon me but I would like to pursue this political philosophy tangent. It has occurred to me that a major weakness of political philosophies they they all jump straight to justifying their normative standards and describing how things ought to be rather than first describing and defining objectively what politics is and how it works. For context, I am recalling from Peikoff’s “Unity in Epistemology and Ethics” course the lecture on the “two definitions” problem from where I made the following paraphrasing notes:
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Value
What is the correct definition of ‘value’?
Answer A1 : From Galt’s speech “A value is that which one acts to gain and/or keep.” This refers to the goal directed actions of plants, animals and men. Under this definition even the irrational anti-life goals that people pursue such as power, prestige, or any whim qualify as values.
Answer A2 : What makes something a value is not merely that someone pursues it but that it supports one’s life. Proper values are pro-life.
The apparent paradox is needing to start with the broad definition which opens the door to any goal directed action whatever including destructive acts, only to reach the Objectivist standard of value which then closes the door to destructive acts.
A2 is narrower than A1. A1 is the set, A2 a subset. A2 has built into the answer the Objectivist ethical standard of value.
A1 demarcates a category of behavior that is observable and objective.
Normally later definitions supplant previous definitions but here is a case where it does not. A1 is not offered as an early or temporary definition to be cast aside when the Objectivist conclusions are reached. “A value is that which one acts to gain and/or keep.” is the correct permanent definition, edited and refined over years to be deliberately broad.
It is invalid to pick one of these definitions as correct. Both serve a purpose and are permanently necessary. The first, broader definition is a condensation and integration of certain facts of reality. The second definition is an inference from the first and thus cannot replace it {without creating a stolen concept}.
And later an Ayn Rand story:
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Ayn Rand story
Although LP never asked AR about the “two definitions” problem in general, he did ask her specifically about the definition of virtue. LP asked her why virtues should not be defined as the means and acts to gain and keep rational values.
Ayn Rand responded by asking him to imagine what would happen on that approach. Once having established a particular ethical theory, redefining the general concept so that it only permits your variant is an outrageous violation of objectivity. It would be an attempt to make it impossible to even think about alternatives. Ayn Rand was sensitive to issues of objectivity and was emphatic about never importing your conclusions into the definitions of terms that are condensations of observations. In particular, Ayn Rand was enraged at the suggestion that virtue should only be defined as the pursuit of rational values.
“You will encounter two different types of criticism of Objectivism [as a morality] with a life and death difference in terms of the soul, mind, and honesty of your opponent depending on which he offers. One type of criticism is that Objectivism is a wrong morality, an evil morality, a selfish morality, too idealistic a morality, etc. Other things being equal you can deal with a person like that, that is just a disagreement about content and in principle they are still open to go back to reality. But the type of person who will say to you “Objectivism is not a morality at all” is the type of person who is completely closed off to reality and is a pure dogmatist. The type of person who will say Objectivism is not a morality at all is exactly parallel to a Nazi who will define man as a white Aryan. The Nazi will go on to distinguish good and bad among white Aryans but the rest of mankind is regarded as subhuman.”
Rand objectively defined value and thus was able to admit many different ethical philosophies for pursuing diverse values did in fact qualify as philosophies. But what is the objective basis of politics? If politics starts with individual rights or the collectives of the state or the race then that puts a normative conclusion at the foundation of the field and makes all of the theories unintelligible to each other, and setting up the dogmatism that Rand decried above.
I can’t imagine that Rand would have not seen the need for an objective basis of a philosophy of politics but she never found one satisfying enough to put into print. The only other attempt at an objective basis of politics I know of is the conservative one, where the basic political unit is the family, which then is organized into hierarchical structures of clan, tribe, etc. until the nation level is reached. At least the causal relations of parents creating and raising children are objective.
So my question to you Stephen is have you come across any attempts to create an objective basis of a philosophy of politics?