Take a situation where one person’s rights are being violated by a second person. The second is inapable of correcting the violation without help from the victim and did not intentionally cause the violation.
The victim intends to use lethal means to protect his rights. The victim has non-lethal means of protecting his rights, but chooses lethal means for convenience.
A third party can forcefully intervene to make the first party to use the less convenient non-lethal means instead of the lethal.
In this situation, as the third person I stated that I would use force to prevent the unnecessary death, but I would not use lethal force. I’m not going to kill the victim to prevent the second from being killed. But I am going to further impose on the victim to prevent death.
Wrong answer. “Bearster” banned me from undernet #AynRand IRC for this position (reason: intrinsicist). Unfortunately I was not able to get a rational answer out of anyone as to the objectivist position.
I know that objectivists recognize force as binary. You either don’t impose, or you stand ready to fire a gun. There is no in-between.
Then, is the objectivist position that the means of protecting one’s rights are completely up to the person whose rights are violated in every case, even where the violation wasn’t willful?
Is there some other resolution I’m missing here?