I’m new to Objectivism, and have found most of it very insightful, and I certainly classify myself as a potential Objectivist. However, after reading Peikoff’s argument for why the initiation of force is evil (or immoral) in OPAR, a question popped into my mind that I haven’t been able to resolve through the writings of Rand that I have available: Why is the initiation of force immoral?
Peikoff’s essential claim in OPAR is that the initiation of force is evil because reason and cognition are impossible when one is the recipient of the initiation of force. I accept as truth that one cannot use their mind when being forced, but then I fail to see why that qualifies the initiation of force as immoral given Peikoff’s early claim that morality is derivative from one’s own life, not the lives of anyone else. It seems to me that Peikoff presents an egoist ethical system, yet then claims that the initiation of force is immoral because it violates a pseudo-altruist ethical system. To my understanding, under an egoist system of ethics, the only way to demonstrate that the initiation of force is immoral would be to demonstrate that the initiation of force is antithetical to the values/life of the one who is initiating the force, which Peikoff doesn’t attempt to demonstrate in this specific writing of his.
I anticipate that it can be demonstrated to some degree that the initiation of force can act against the values of the one who is initiating the force (because it would destabilize society, because the initiator would be devaluing his own life by devaluing others, because the initiator would suffer from retaliation, etc.) but all of the cases that I can think of are minor. I don’t know if Objectivism would subscribe to a scale of morality, but it seems to me that all the violations of egoist morality by the initiation of force would be less severe than violations doing something small to directly injure one’s self. For example, murder might be immoral to some degree because of the reasons I listed in parentheses above, but shooting yourself in the foot would seem to be more immoral because it would directly act against your own values on a greater scale. (Does Objectivism recognize such a scale of value? I assume as much, but am not sure.)
Therefore, I ask the question: Why is the initiation of force immoral, and how immoral is it?
I don’t mean this to be a criticism of Objectivism, but merely an admission of my lack of understanding of it.
(I would assume that the initiation of force has been discussed many-a-time here, but I couldn’t find any times that would adequately answer my question. If such a thread exists, directing me to it would be great.)