A fair warning is due:
- I’m an ex-Objectivist. Back when I liked Rand’s ideas, I didn’t have enough money to read her seminal non-fiction works, so I’m going by bits and pieces here. Also, I’ve only recently have overcome the shame I used to feel for having been a randroid (in the worst way possible), so if you look up my messages on other resources, you will see a lot of inflammatory comments. I’m sorry I’ve made them, I made a promise to be more considerate in the future.
- As you can see, I’m a veteran of this very forum. In case you’re interested, here’s a thread which started my divergence from Objectivism. It was a product of reading a small yet really great, concise and highly mathematical exposition to a simplified version of Keynesian general equilibrium, its applications to international trade and optimal economic development. As you can see, I’ve made some erroneous claims there, but by large it represented the shift in my thinking: from largely rhetorical and imprecise philosophizing (even where it was inappropriate) to rigorous and highly mathematical, using mathematical models where they can be constructed.
- The following is patched together from my Reddit posts. The discussion there didn’t take off, and eventually I was redirected to objectivistliving.com. It didn’t take there, either. Here are the topics where it was going on: (1), (2).
- My goal is to “scientifically” break down Objectivism to see what it’s made of and how the pieces fit together; I’m doing it to get some closure for myself.
- These questions are debate-ish. While I honestly don’t know the Objectivist position on them, I may challenge it when I learn it, so you can view this topic as an invitation to a debate. I’ll try to keep it civil, but may fail to do so (ask Boydstun). I’ll heed warnings, and will leave if asked by the moderators. I don’t mind this topic being moved to another subforum if it’ll be more appropriate there.
- I will not buy Rand’s books unless I have compelling evidence that my questions are answered there and that a small summary or quotation will not do.
I’m starting this thread to ask for some clarification and hopefully to start an interesting discussion. Here is my parsing of the description of Objectivist Metaphysics on Wikipedia:
- Existence (the sum of everything existing) is non-trivial, which is self-evident.
- To be conscious is to be conscious of existence
- Existence is composed of entities, which are completely defined by their attributes.
- There are no contradictions in reality.
The first two statements are the familiar cogito ergo sum, told backwards. That is, where Descartes used deduction to arrive from (2) to (1), Rand simply posited both separately as self-evident. While (1) and (2) are easily understandable, (3) and (4) give me trouble.
On the subject of (3).
(Question 1) What are attributes? Suppose we have an entity X, and an attribute P. How does P work? Is it akin to a logical predicate that we can evaluate at X to get some truth value P(X)?
- If so, can we apply it to another entity, some Y, to get P(Y)? From Rand’s description it seems that we shouldn’t be able to. Firstly, P is something X has, but this description suggests that P exists independently of X; for example, should X cease to exist, P may still exist if it is applicable to some Y. Secondly, if P is applicable to more than just X, then the sum of all entities to which P is applicable - what is it? Is it a concept? But we haven’t described epistemology yet. Is it a Platonic ideal? Rand doesn’t describe such a thing. Is it yet another entity? And is P then an entity in and of itself? Does it, in turn, have attributes?
- Suppose, on the other hand, P is not something that can be applied to other entities (we’ll denote it X.P then). Then what is it? Consider two attributes of X: X.P and X.Q. What distinguishes them?
On the subject of (4).
(Question 2) What exactly is a contradiction? I’m serious. Contradiction is usually defined as a part of some logical system (like natural deduction). But Rand doesn’t specify how any logical system is connected to reality. We could try and save contradictions by using (4) as a definition, but there is something in the way: while it makes sense to say that contradiction is something that cannot exist in reality, it is clearly not enough to say that contradiction is something that doesn’t exist in reality. To be able to say the former, we have to introduce the notion of possible reality (something that could exist, but doesn’t). And if in the discussion of (3) we decided that an attribute is not something that can be applied to multiple entities then such a notion is impossible, because if we replace one entity X with another entity Y, how do we compare their attributes if not by applying them to both X and Y?
The last two questions were originally from another Reddit discussion.
How does Objectivism address the following issues with the free will hypothesis:
- The free will theorem states under very mild conditions that if humans are indeterministic, then so are elementary particles.
- Humans have evolved biologically from more primitive species. Also, studies of animal intelligence show that other mammals have (limited) capacity for abstract thought.
Both facts highly suggest that if free will is there, it’s not limited to humans. In particular, if one wants to maintain “human exceptionalism”, the following questions need to be answered:
- (Question 3) What is the difference between simple indeterminism and free will?
- (Question 4) What human ancestors had free will? By which process had free will evolved?