The subject got cut off: the full question should read ‘Does the particular nature of a particular volition determine that volition’s particular choice?’
I am going to begin this post with a series of relevant quotes from Rand.
“All the countless forms, motions, combinations and dissolutions of elements within the universe–from a floating speck of dust to the formation of a galaxy to the emergence of life–are caused and determined by the identities of the elements involved.” - The Metaphysical Versus the Man-Made
“The metaphysically given is, was, will be, and had to be. Nothing made by man had to be: it was made by choice.” - The Metaphysical Versus the Man-Made
"A sin without volition is a slap at morality and an insolent contradiction in terms: that which is outside the possibility of choice is outside the province of morality. If man is evil by birth, he has no will, no power to change it; if he has no will, he can be neither good nor evil; a robot is amoral. To hold, as man’s sin, a fact not open to his choice is a mockery of morality. To hold man’s nature as his sin is a mockery of nature. To punish him for a crime he committed before he was born is a mockery of justice. To hold him guilty in a matter where no innocence exists is a mockery of reason. To destroy morality, nature, and reason by means of a single concept is a feat hardly to be matched. Yet that is the root of your code.
“Do not hide behind the cowardly evasion that man is born with free will, but with a ‘tendency’ to evil. A free will saddled with a tendency is like a game with loaded dice. It forces man to struggle through the effort of playing, to bear responsibility and pay for the game, but the decision is weighted in favor of a tendency that he had no power to escape. If the tendency is of his choice, he cannot possess it at birth; if it is not of his choice, his will is not free.” - This Is John Galt Speaking
“But man’s responsibility goes still further: a process of thought is not automatic nor “instinctive” nor involuntary—nor infallible. Man has to initiate it, to sustain it and to bear responsibility for its results. He has to discover how to tell what is true or false and how to correct his own errors; he has to discover how to validate his concepts, his conclusions, his knowledge; he has to discover the rules of thought, the laws of logic, to direct his thinking. Nature gives him no automatic guarantee of the efficacy of his mental effort.” - The Objectivist Ethics
I acknowledge Rand’s distinction between the metaphysically given and the man-made in the sense that some aspects of reality arise through the actions of volition and some do not–and I acknowledge that this distinction is important. However, I am not sure I understand what Rand means when she says that nothing made by man had to be. If she means ‘had to be’ in the same sense that she applies to the metaphysically given, I don’t understand her. Each person has a particular nature, just as everything that exists does, and each person’s actions must proceed from that person’s particular nature if they are to have been within that person’s control. The only choice consistent with that nature will be the choice that was actually made, just as the only action consistent with the nature of a heavy object will be to fall when unsupported. If the choice is not determined by the person’s nature, then what connection does the particular choice have to the person choosing? More to the point, how can a person be held responsible for a choice if that choice is not determined by the person’s nature? Rand seems to hold in the last few quotes above that responsibility depends upon the freedom of the will, and I think this is true in a particular sense. It would be absurd to hold a paraplegic responsible for his failure to walk across a room–that is not a matter open to his choice. But it would also be absurd to say that simply because he did not choose the nature of his particular volitional faculty, he is not responsible for the choices output by this volitional faculty–in holding him responsible, one is effectively holding the nature of his volitional faculty responsible, as far as I can make sense of the concept ‘responsibility.’ In the case of the paraplegic, the choices output could not meaningfully concern walking or not walking, but they could concern, for example, talking or not talking. (I recognize that I am not talking here about a primary choice in Rand’s sense. If you prefer that I reframe this discussion in terms of that, I am willing to do so.)
It should be clear that ‘could’ and its derivatives would be used in different senses were I to say ‘A heavy object could fall or not fall’ versus ‘A paraplegic could talk or not talk.’ If ‘could’ refers strictly to what is possible to the exact natures of the entities acting, only one thing is possible in both cases. But if ‘could’ refers to what is possible to the exact nature of entities once any volitional faculty that may be present is abstracted, then different things are possible to an entity with a volitional faculty.
So my question comes down to this: what would Rand have said to the above?