Meade - I am willing to give you a bit more benefit of the doubt than some of my fellow posters. Let me address what exactly is wrong with some of your assumptions, and then I’ll see what you do with my explanations from there before I come to any conclusions about your rationality.
First, this:
Let me explain briefly why I take the 1 to be ontologically primordial to the 2:
2 = 1+1.
It means that I can rationally posit a one without positing a two: but the opposite is impossible.
i can say:
2 exists -> 1 exists
because a 2 defined as an abstraction of 2 observed objects, each is a unit.
but the converse is not true:
1 exists -> 2 exists
because I would need 2 or more simultaneous instances of 1.
The argument given here, which depends upon what you can rationally say, shows not that 1 is ontologically prior to 2, but rather epistemologically (with which I would agree). Whether it is in fact ontologically prior is a question that I don’t think philosophical speculation can answer. Only a more specialized science (probably physics) can answer what the ultimate constituents of the universe were–and there’s really no reason to think that it had to have only been one. Your argument certainly doesn’t establish that.
So therefore in any universe where a 1 and a 2 exist, then logically the 2 must have been made from the one, and time must have coexisted with the one(or else the state of existence could not change). Now let there exist time, and let there exist 1 (this is like saying there’s only one object in the universe). Then the universe has 2 aspects, and I contradict myself (or if you like, how could time pass without difference?). so it must be true that time = 1 (or the 1 is just another way of thinking about time- which is understandable considering its the most basic thing in the universe).
In fact, you have contradicted yourself here. You stated in your original post that “time” has to do with “change.” But change presupposes that which changes (since change is a relational concept). You can’t have “pure change” existing prior to anything else, as the primary element of the universe, or else what is it that’s changing? Do you see the mistake you’re making here? Entities are primary–their actions (i.e., changes) are dependent on them for their existence. I thought you considered yourself an Aristotelian, so this should sound very familiar to you.
Consider Platonism. Plato is my arch enemy, because his entire philosophy rests on the principle that time is an illusion. His philosophy was ghastly wrong because it posited complex forms outside of time. Its a pure negation of reality. Its like chopping up a body and putting the pieces on display, and saying each piece existed before the body did.
Actually, I think I detect a bit of a Platonist influence in your premises. I’m not sure, though–it’s apparent that you’ve been reading way too much Greek cosmology and that it’s influenced you a lot, but the exact influence is a bit difficult to place (but there’s definitely something besides Aristotelianism); maybe Pythagorean. Anyway, that’s not really important.
I’m not trying to undermine reality, just trying to purify it.
The problem is, you think that there’s some need to reduce reality to one ultimate element, and (incorrectly) decide it must be time. But philosophically, there’s really no reason to suppose that there are one or ten or a billion different elements. That’s a question for the specialized sciences to answer. Why exactly do you think that it’s philosophically relevent, anyway? How does your hypothesis about time=1 help you understand and guide your own life?
I think the problem is methodological:
I might also add that I take any evidence of my senses into account (except for when I have reason to believe they are being decieved) and I always find I can reconcile them with these ideas.
Just because you can reconcile your ideas to your sense experience, doesn’t mean that they’re true. Your ideas should be formed by a valid inductive process, starting with observation of reality. But what you seem to be doing is starting with some hypotheses that are only half based on perceptual evidence, and then looking at reality to see whether that evidence _dis_proves them. And if it doesn’t immediately or obviously do so, you take that as positive evidence for your hypotheses. But that’s epistemologically improper.