I recently attended a philosophy class where the question was raised: If there is no cost to yourself, do you have a moral obligation to help strangers?
My initial reaction was that one has no obligation to help others (excluding those one values) regardless of the lack of cost for that help.
Later I started thinking and changed my opinion. My reasoning revolves around two premises.
The first is that one should be honest with others because one presumes that others are morally good (I believe I read this in OPAR, on the subsection on the virtue of honesty).
The second is that one should denounce any vice or morally corrupt person one comes in contact with. One should also praise any virtue or morally good person one finds. Failure to do the first amounts to sanction. Failure to do the second is similarly important. One is morally obligated to do both.
So my tenuous conclusion is that: based upon the presumption of goodness and the requirement that one rewards the good, one is obligated to help strangers when such help will not cost the helper anything.
I am still emotionally attached to my initial reaction, and would prefer to be wrong (it makes more “gut” sense to me).
I could be wrong about the two premises (there might not be a presumption of goodness or a moral obligation to reward the good, or the presumption of goodness could be weak enough to not require any obligation apaert from honesty).
This is an almost useless question because there are never any circumstances where one can benefit others with no cost to one’s self.
The answer to this question will just help pinpoint the reason why people are not required to help strangers (it could be that the fact that others’ existence is not enough to produce any moral obligation of help, or that there is no moral obligation because any help carries with it a cost).
The reason I am asking this is because the great majority (as far as I know, all) of Objectivism does not clash with either my emotions or reason, this question appears to do so, and I would like to reconcile them.
Thank you for your thoughts.
Edit: Just to clarifiy, I am asking the same question to you that was asked in my philosophy class. I also am asking if I misunderstood (or forgot, or misremembered) any part of the Objectivist philosophy.