I was having a discussion about whether or not individuals should be able to own land or not. I don’t see anything inherently different about natural resources that would exempt them from being property, although one could argue that you have to actually use the land (i.e. change it from the initial “wild” state it was in) to properly own it.
The guy I was discussing this with said that to exist we need to occupy some space, and that if you cannot (because for example all land is privately owned and everyone refuses you access) you can’t exercise your right to life. I think his example is quite absurd, but the correct principles should also cover situations like these. He said that if you can’t actually occupy some space by right, and instead you have to trade for permission (so to speak), then your right to life (and the others) is not actually a right anymore, but is merely yours by permission.
I am not quite sure how to answer this. I pointed out that a right is a right to action, not to something specific, and that therefore you don’t have a claim to some piece of land just by virtue of existing. Furthermore, because only the initiation of force constitutes a violation of rights (at least I think only this does) then refusing to allow someone on your property is not violating their rights. It doesn’t matter what other people do in that scenario, that doesn’t change anything fundamental here.
This leads me to the question; should all land be private property, or is it necessary to have some public property as well (to avoid this situation, or for other reasons). I hope someone can help me with any inconsistencies in my argumentation, or with something I may have missed.