I wasn’t aware of any distinction of small-p and large-p versions of pragmatism, as far as I know, there is only pragmatism, an American philosophical tradition originating with William James. The disagreements Objectivists have with pragmatism go a bit beyond just its rejection of fixed principles, but all the way down to its metaphysical basis in that it rejects an objective reality, the correspondence theory of truth, and its primacy of action over practical reason. Of course, if you find unconvincing Rand’s naturalist teleological ethics, then it wouldn’t be surprising that one might find pragmatism to be appealing, but I question your understanding of it, only because your comments seem to be a bit out of line with Rand’s account.
Charles Peirce (and, later, James) no more invented pragmatic than Rand invented objectivity. Each simply adopted a common word to describe their respective philosophies. While something can certainly be learned of each from the chosen word, a serious study requires more.
This seems confusing because: (1) It’s not clear what “given” means; given how, given to whom, given by whom/what,
By “given” I mean, roughly, fixed at birth (e.g. by genetics) or acquired over a lifetime (e.g. by experience) but not adopted by a reasoned determination.
(2) Rand does not hold that values are not varied and pluralistic,
It is my understanding that Rand held survival and, more generally, flourishing to be fundamental and universal true and correct values.
(3) would it be a universal truth that values are varied and given and not unvaried and not-given,
It might well be a consistent observation.
(4) Rand does not hold that values can’t be changed, (5) Rand doesn’t hold that values are intrinsic, in fact she explicitly criticizes this idea (Cf. Rand, CUI 21-22; Peikoff, OPAR, chapter 7, section 5; Smith, Viable Values, chapter 3.)
This is more pertinent, here. An interesting side question is how values change (other than, as noted above, by subjective experience).
(6) Rand does not hold that values are not discovered. Now I know the word “intrinsic” can mean different things, and that often times people use “intrinsic” interchangeably with “objective,” but with Rand, the objectivity of values was a kind of Golden Mean to steer the twin pitfalls of “intrinsic” and “subjective,” and so is distinguished from the two. For Rand what is good for man, being discoverable and measurable by reason, comprises and requires a number of generic goods and virtues. But also addition to generic goods, there are also individualistic properties to values. This makes the moral life always unique to a specific human person. Each of the abstract, substantive goods and virtues will apply differently and contextually to each specific individual person. Thus, the human good is both substantive and agent-relative.
Perhaps the question to discuss further, then, is how values are divided between “generic goods and virtues” and “individualistic properties to values”. A system that includes both can, of course, treat and weigh them such that either the first or the second predominates or anything in between.
As to whether or not values can be empirically testable, well again it depends on what you mean by this, but if we rightly understand this, then certainly they can. How do I know whether or not some thing has certain effects, e.g. that cyanide is bad for me, or something like this. Well, I have to gain knowledge about it by observing it, testing it in some cases, and so forth. This by itself is not enough to tell me how to proceed to act, but for that we need a kind of measurement that grades values in reference to an end.
You are headed, here, into the same circularity I noted above. What is an “end” if not another value?
This is not the same thing as saying that empirical testing alone can tell us what ends to pursue, or what standard of value by which we should measure the things we discover.
Yes, we need to be careful about what we are discussing will be claimed here.
But certainly on the Aristotelian-Randian account, empirical investigation into the nature of the moral agent is necessary to discover such a standard as a first principle in terms of which we can then judge its actions.
Maybe not “necessary”, but certainly interesting and illuminating.
Finally, we can then test the value given as a means in relation to the standard and see if it fulfills the ends of the moral agent. In such a way, you could “falsify” a value if it fails to achieve the end attached to it (e.g. you could show the enacting of compulsory egalitarianism would lead to massive poverty and death, thus contradicting the requirements of man’s survival and well-being.) I would think only in the above senses can we say empirical testing of values is compatible with the Objectivist account.
See above.