Right, it was only a matter of time, I'm need help again.
With regards to the stolen concept fallacy, how does atheism work?
Is it possible to say that God/some form of higher being does not exist without
inadvertantly implying his/its existence?
This may seem a fairly fundamental question but I am having a great deal of
trouble at the moment actually getting my hands on Rand's texts and therefore
am working solely with material I am able to find on the net and although there is
plenty, it seems primarily for those with prior knowledge of the ideas of
Objectivism and now I'm confused.
Anyone who can help, please do.
Ta ta,
TF