Rudmer Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 I learned of Kantianism before I learned of Objectivism, and was surprised to learn of Ayn Rand's and Objectivism's extreme distaste for Kant. At first glance, they appeared to be roughly compatible, but when I did some digging, I of course discovered many more disparities. Of particular note is the fact that Kant essentially says that "man is blind, because he has eyes—deaf, because he has ears—deluded, because he has a mind—and the things he perceives do not exist, because he perceives them" (according to Ms. Rand). But I have yet to read or hear a complete, concise summation of all the reasons why Objectivism despises Kantianism to the extreme extent that it does. Would someone please spell it out for me, or point me to such an explanation? Thank you in advance. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zip Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 Objectivism is built upon and in relation to the real existing world. It is of course the polar opposite of Kantian silliness that reality is an illusion. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted July 21, 2009 Report Share Posted July 21, 2009 But I have yet to read or hear a complete, concise summation of all the reasons why Objectivism despises Kantianism to the extreme extent that it does.If you can provide a complete, concise summary of what Kantianism says, you will have provided 75% of the reasons why Objectivism holds Kant in disrepute. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.