A sentiment I commonly see among fellow Objectivists is that any given individual in a country is responsible for the actions of the government of that country. For example, one might say that it is acceptable to target civilians specifically if their government acts aggressively to the US (or does so indirectly, by sponsoring terrorism). What is the reasoning behind this?
Let’s say, for example, some random peasant named Ivan in the old Soviet Union. The totalitarian government uses force to suppress dissent, prevent emigration, etc. The threat of force is used to prevent him from making any moral choices. As Rand would say, morality ends where a gun begins. How, then, can this person be held morally responsible, especially given that the actions he’d be held responsible for weren’t even conducted by him? Even if (for example), Ivan helped to manufacture bombs, shouldn’t the initiator of force (the person who made Ivan make those bombs in the first place) be held responsible exclusively?
More importantly, however, is the fact that as far as I can tell, this seems to be based on a collectivist line of reasoning: Ivan happens to be in the same arbitrary group as Stalin (geographical location or citizenship), therefore Ivan is as bad a person as Stalin/responsible for what Stalin did. I can’t think of any other reasoning that supports it.
What other arguments are there? “If we make it clear that we’re holding civilians responsible for the actions of a dictator that’s attacked us, maybe they’ll do our work for us and get rid of him”? Could we also then be justified–even compelled–to attack neighboring countries for the same purpose?