Zip Posted February 15, 2010 Report Share Posted February 15, 2010 Is it true that illegality requires volition? By which I mean that an object or anything else in and of itself can not be illegal but that there must be a prime mover if you will to create an illegality? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted February 15, 2010 Report Share Posted February 15, 2010 Only choices can be morally evaluated and thus prohibited by law, and no choices are automatic, so volition is always strictly present. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Alexandros Posted February 15, 2010 Report Share Posted February 15, 2010 As an example of what DavidOdden put so well, consider laws that ban things (guns, smoking, etc). Are cigarettes and guns at fault for being... cigarettes and guns, and therefore their very existence is illegal? No, that's ridiculous. With laws such as these, what is actually being made illegal is some choice involving the things. If guns were to be banned, it isn't that guns are illegal, it's that the choice to own a gun is illegal, leaving you only with the choice not to own a gun (which means there is no choice at all). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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