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After the initial reading of your OP, the following excerpt had come to mind. In the second paragraph, Stephen articulates that Rand's definition seems restrictive and goes on in the remainder of the cited passage to provide some supporting reasoning with which to underscore it.

In objectivism, morality (principles for action) have an OBJECTIVE basis (life as the standard of value) and would never be based on either the whims of others, or the whims of ones' self projected onto others.... which is what the Golden Rule would have us make the basis for moral determinations. I think the contradiction between that and the Golden Rule is pretty plain to see.