y_feldblum Posted July 18, 2005 Report Share Posted July 18, 2005 Indeed. Which is why the seller should be punished. However the buyer still has the right to own the book - it isnt stolen property and there is no reason to punish him for reading it. But it is stolen property. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted July 18, 2005 Report Share Posted July 18, 2005 But it is stolen property.What is your evidnce for that claim? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Proverb Posted July 19, 2005 Report Share Posted July 19, 2005 Scholastic engaged in a conditional sale with booksellers. e.g. "I transfer, by way of this monitary/contractual transaction, all rights to this property except: [right1], [right2] ect ... by these: [condition1], [condition2] ect ... " If a condition is not met that properly transfers a specific right to property (simply, as an example, {if you don't pay me}->{you cant have this}) then the 'tranferee' has no claim on [right1], [right2] ect... of said property. Scholastic has claim to any pre-sold book. It is up to the buyers to pursue restitution from the sellers for involving them in an illegal sale (such that, the value transfered by buyer to seller is left unpaid after the rightful reclaiming of said property) any comments? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HaloNoble6 Posted July 19, 2005 Report Share Posted July 19, 2005 Proof scholastic engaged in such a contract? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted July 20, 2005 Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 Scholastic engaged in a conditional sale with booksellers.Even if this were true, it is irrelevant since the Canadian publisher is Raincoast books. Even so, your analysis is just plain wrong, since the publisher has no contract with the buyer, so cannot bind the buyer by a contract. At best, the publisher has a right to legal retribution against the seller. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hal Posted July 20, 2005 Author Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 But it is stolen property. What item was stolen, and at precisely what point? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Proverb Posted July 20, 2005 Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 The Contract: http://www.scholastic.com/custsupport/book...ontract2005.pdf Does the retailer have the right to actually sell the product before its date? If not, then, with given proof, could the publisher seek to withdraw it's product, even from an honest buyer? In this case moving the burden of retribution to the seller. Consider: A steals from B B sells 'honestly' to C Can A seek its property from C at B's expense i.e. refund with intrest? If I am missing something here please comment , this is an important issue to me. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HaloNoble6 Posted July 20, 2005 Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 Precisely as in my stolen Decleration of Independence example. Who here would claim that I have a right to keep my stolen copy and why? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted July 20, 2005 Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 Does the retailer have the right to actually sell the product before its date? If not, then, with given proof, could the publisher seek to withdraw it's product, even from an honest buyer? In this case moving the burden of retribution to the seller. Under a contract with Scholastic, the retailer does not have the right to pre-sell a Restricted Title. Clauses 4a-c state the publisher's remedies, which are against the seller, and do not even include reclaiming books in the hands of the seller, because it is the property of the seller, at this point. (Other remedies against the seller might be available in court if there were negligence). The problem with the boxed equation is that there was no theft. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Proverb Posted July 20, 2005 Report Share Posted July 20, 2005 So then what is it that actally happens when the seller violates the contract? If you violate a contract to gain a value, isn't that value stolen in a sense, perhaps 'unjustly gained'? I think in asking that question, I've come to realize that int this situation the only one who can be affected in a violation of a contract is the violator. Is this correct? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
DavidOdden Posted July 21, 2005 Report Share Posted July 21, 2005 So then what is it that actally happens when the seller violates the contract?Basically, you've broken a promise. That is quite different from theft. It means that you can be forced to either make good on that promise, if possible, or you can be forced to provide some compensation for the actual damages that you caused to the other party by failing to perform. Theft is taking of another person's property (with a sale, the object in question is no longer the first person's property), and requires a particular mental state (mens rea "guilty mind", i.e. the intent to take, in this case -- contract violation isn't about mental state, and it is about what you actually do, even unknowingly).I think in asking that question, I've come to realize that int this situation the only one who can be affected in a violation of a contract is the violator. Is this correct?Anyone can be "affected". Only a putative violator can be (successfully) held responsible (in a decent count). In a more "good old days" mode, only the contracting parties have standing to pursue matters about contract violation in the court. Thus if taxi firm Jones contractually relies on maintenance company Smith to keep the cars running and Smith breaches the contract by not keeping the cars running, passanger Williams who has a contract with Jone to transport cannot sue Smith for breach because he didn't get his ride to the airport. However, since the announcement of the doctrine of negligence and various other social responsibility concepts, who knows? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zeus44 Posted July 30, 2005 Report Share Posted July 30, 2005 You must keep in mind what contracts are all about. Like all standard contracts, the contract between the publisher and the seller did not say that the seller does not own the book if the publisher's conditions are not met. On the contrary, all the contract said was that if the seller violates its promise to not sell the book before a certain time, the publisher is legally entitled to a remedy. And in contract law, the standard remedy is monetary compensation. Contract law does not say that you must perform your contractual obligations; it says only that you must perform your contractual obligations or pay damages to the injured party. The normal form of damages is expectation damages, which say that the offending party must put the injured party, monetarily, in the position the he would have been in if the contract had been performed. Contract law imposes obligations only on the parties to a contract. The buyer was not a party to the contract between the publisher and the seller and thus has no obligations to either, beyond paying for the book. Therefore, the publisher has no claim, under the contract, against the buyer. He can only bring a civil suit against the seller for violation of contract. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.