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Question About 2nd Amendment

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nimble

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If the use of retaliatory force is reserved for only government, why do we have a 2nd amendment right to keep and bear arms for protection?

(1) Because the Bill of Rights was not written by Objectivists.

(2) Because arms can be used for self-defense and hunting (hard to imagine hunting being a way of life, these days).

(3) And specifically as a subcase of self-defense, to allow the possibility that citizens could take up arms against the state, if it were to slip back into the tyrrany that we had just escaped from.

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4) Because a police man is not always next to you at all times.

Retaliation and self-defense are not the same thing. Self-defense is the broader concept that subsumes retaliation, which is self-defense in response to an initiation of force that takes place after that initiation.

The point is that emergency situations exist and the government isn't always there when you need them for protection. You must do it yourself and be prepared to prove objectivly that it was self-defense that you were engaging in when the government does show up and question you.

While my dilineation between retaliation and self-defense may be mistaken, it is this second point that is the direct answer to your question.

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Retaliatory force being reserved for the government doesn’t mean you have to let someone beat the crap out of you until the police get there. You have every right to defend yourself. However you don’t have a right to bust into Smith’s house and beat him up the day after. Neither do you have the right to hurt Smith if he breaks his contract with you. It is situations where you life is in jeopardy vs. situations when it’s not (self-defense vs. retaliatory force – sticks and stones vs. words).

That being said… Only bad governments fear gun-wielding citizens. What is “hard to imagine” is a capitalist society where people more than ever go on shooting sprees. It is also “hard to imagine” a government so good that they are going to be there 24/7 to protect you.

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