Inspector Posted February 11, 2005 Report Share Posted February 11, 2005 I guess that would depend: if someone asks you to shoot them, and you do, is that an initiation of force? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EC Posted February 12, 2005 Report Share Posted February 12, 2005 Something similar happened here in MI, a teenager got his girlfriend pregnant. They didn't have money for an abortion and didn't want the word to get back to her parents that she was with child. So she asked him to hit her repeatedly in the stomach with a small baseball bat over a period of two weeks until she miscarried. She bled to much (I think) and had to go to the hospital where all this was unraveled. The girl who asked to be hit was charged with no crime, while the boyfriend was charged with (again,I think) assault and murder of the fetus. Take out the contravertial(sp.?) part involving abortion. Did the girl have the right to ask her boyfriend to beat her with the bat? I say yes and that should be no crime. But I should note that it should still be considered immoral because it caused her harm, intended or not. This story was in the papers and on T.V. news within the last few weeks and probally would not be hard to find reference to using Google if anyone's interested. You might want to check recent issues of the Detroit News Online. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
RationalBiker Posted February 18, 2005 Report Share Posted February 18, 2005 I guess that would depend: if someone asks you to shoot them, and you do, is that an initiation of force? As was clearly pointed out to me in another thread, force automatically implies a lack of consent, particularly when used in the context of the phrase "initiation of force". Therefore, if consent is given to the act, there is no force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TomL Posted February 18, 2005 Report Share Posted February 18, 2005 I think "immoral" is possibly the most accurate. I am primarily concerned with the Ethics behind this, not the Political implications. If you are concerned with ethics, then the term you want is "immoral", which is a synonym for "wrong" in an ethical context. I can't provide a definition for the terms, and I don't know which fits what I am asking the best, so I was trying to provide a "choose your poison" approach to answering my question. As a suggestion, you could also try to describe or define what you are thinking rather than lay out a bunch of terms and let us try to guess what you mean. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Inspector Posted February 18, 2005 Report Share Posted February 18, 2005 As was clearly pointed out to me in another thread, force automatically implies a lack of consent, particularly when used in the context of the phrase "initiation of force". Therefore, if consent is given to the act, there is no force. Then I suppose that an initiation of force would, in fact, always be wrong. I think I read that other thread, but it petered out without anyone giving a clear summary of conclusions or a final definition... If you have one, Rationalcop, it would be quite useful here (and for my future use). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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