Eiuol Posted November 24, 2009 Report Share Posted November 24, 2009 My question is essentially at what point can you say someone is violating IP rights? For example would it be proper to say a person can patent steel? Or would it only make sense to patent a particular steel with a particular name? If I were to analyze a particular product of steel and reverse engineer it, would it be proper to have any IP law prevent me from producing the chemically identical steel, provided I give it a new name? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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